Appendix 1Crediting of theoretical knowledge

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

A. CREDITING OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE IN THE SAME OR ANOTHER CATEGORY OF AIRCRAFT — BRIDGE INSTRUCTION AND EXAMINATION REQUIREMENTS

1. LAPL and PPL

1.1. For the issue of an LAPL, the holder of an LAPL in another category of aircraft shall be fully credited towards requirements of theoretical knowledge on the common subjects established in point FCL.120(a).

1.2. For the issue of an LAPL or a PPL, holders of a PPL, CPL or ATPL in another category of aircraft shall be credited towards requirements of theoretical knowledge on the common subjects established in point FCL.215(a). This credit shall also apply to applicants for an LAPL or a PPL who hold a BPL issued in accordance with Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Regulation (EU) 2018/395 or an SPL issued in accordance with Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, except that the subject ‘navigation’ shall not be credited.

1.3. For the issue of a PPL, the holder of an LAPL in the same category of aircraft shall be fully credited towards the requirements of theoretical knowledge instruction and examination.

1.4. By way of derogation from point 1.2, for the issue of an LAPL(A), the holder of an SPL issued in accordance with Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976 with privileges to fly TMGs shall demonstrate an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the single-engine piston aeroplane- land class in accordance with point FCL.135.A(a)(2).

2. CPL

2.1. Applicants for the issue of a CPL holding a CPL in another category of aircraft shall have received theoretical knowledge bridge instruction at an ATO on an approved course according to the differences identified between the CPL syllabi for different aircraft categories.

2.2. Applicants shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as defined in this Annex (Part‑FCL) for the following subjects in the appropriate aircraft category:

021 — Aircraft general knowledge: airframe and systems, electrics, power plant and emergency equipment;

022 — Aircraft general knowledge: instrumentation;

032/034 — Performance aeroplanes or helicopters, as applicable;

070 — Operational procedures; and

080 — Principles of flight.

2.3. Applicants for the issue of a CPL having passed the relevant theoretical knowledge examinations for an IR in the same category of aircraft are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in human performance and meteorology unless they have completed the IR training course in accordance with Appendix 6, Section Aa, to this Annex (Part-FCL).

2.4. Applicants for a CPL having passed the relevant theoretical knowledge examinations for an IR or EIR in the same category of aircraft are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the communications subject.

3. ATPL

3.1. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL holding an ATPL in another category of aircraft shall have received theoretical knowledge bridge instruction at an ATO on an approved course according to the differences identified between the ATPL syllabi for different aircraft categories.

3.2. Applicants shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as defined in this Annex (Part‑FCL) for the following subjects in the appropriate aircraft category:

021 — Aircraft general knowledge: airframe and systems, electrics, power plant and emergency equipment;

022 — Aircraft general knowledge: instrumentation;

032/034 — Performance aeroplanes or helicopters, as applicable;

070 — Operational procedures; and

080 — Principles of flight.

3.3. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL(A) having passed the relevant theoretical examination for a CPL(A) are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the subject ‘communications’.

3.4. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL(H) having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL(H) are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:

             air law;

             principles of flight (helicopter); and

             communications.

3.5. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL(A) having passed the relevant theoretical examination for an IR(A) are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the subject ‘communications’.

3.6. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL(H) with an IR(H) having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL(H) are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:

             principles of flight (helicopter); and

             communications.

4. IR

4.1. Applicants for an IR, or for a BIR, who have passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL in the same aircraft category, shall be credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:

             Human Performance,

             Meteorology,

             Communication.

4.2. Applicants for the issue of an IR(H) having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for an ATPL(H) VFR are required to pass the following examination subjects:

             air law;

             flight planning and flight monitoring; and

             radio navigation.

Appendix 2 – Language Proficiency Rating Scale – Expert, extended and operational level

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

LEVEL

PRONUNCIATION

STRUCTURE

VOCABULARY

FLUENCY

COMPREHENSION

INTERACTIONS

Expert

(Level 6)

Pronunciation, stress, rhythm, and intonation, though possibly influenced by the first language or regional variation, almost never interfere with ease of understanding.

Both basic and complex grammatical structures and sentence patterns are consistently well controlled.

Vocabulary range and accuracy are sufficient to communicate effectively on a wide variety of familiar and unfamiliar topics. Vocabulary is idiomatic, nuanced and sensitive to register.

Able to speak at length with a natural, effortless flow. Varies speech flow for stylistic effect, e.g. to emphasize a point.

Uses appropriate discourse markers and connectors spontaneously.

Comprehension is consistently accurate in nearly all contexts and includes comprehension of linguistic and cultural subtleties.

Interacts with ease in nearly all situations. Is sensitive to verbal and non-verbal cues, and responds to them appropriately.

Extended

(Level 5)

Pronunciation, stress, rhythm, and intonation, though influenced by the first language or regional variation, rarely interfere with ease of understanding.

Basic grammatical structures and sentence patterns are consistently well controlled. Complex structures are attempted but with errors which sometimes interfere with meaning.

Vocabulary range and accuracy are sufficient to communicate effectively on common, concrete, and work-related topics. Paraphrases consistently and successfully. Vocabulary is sometimes idiomatic.

Able to speak at length with relative ease on familiar topics, but may not vary speech flow as a stylistic device. Can make use of appropriate discourse markers or connectors.

Comprehension is accurate on common, concrete, and work-related topics and mostly accurate when the speaker is confronted with a linguistic or situational complication or an unexpected turn of events.

Is able to comprehend a range of speech varieties (dialect and/or accent) or registers.

Responses are immediate, appropriate, and informative. Manages the speaker/listener relationship effectively.

Operational

(Level 4)

Pronunciation, stress, rhythm, and intonation are influenced by the first language or regional variation but only sometimes interfere with ease of understanding.

Basic grammatical structures and sentence patterns are used creatively and are usually well controlled. Errors may occur, particularly in unusual or unexpected circumstances, but rarely interfere with meaning.

Vocabulary range and accuracy are usually sufficient to communicate effectively on common, concrete, and work-related topics.

Can often paraphrase successfully when lacking vocabulary particularly in unusual or unexpected circumstances.

Produces stretches of language at an appropriate tempo.

There may be occasional loss of fluency on transition from rehearsed or formulaic speech to spontaneous interaction, but this does not prevent effective communication. Can make limited use of discourse markers and connectors. Fillers are not distracting.

Comprehension is mostly accurate on common, concrete, and work-related topics when the accent or variety used is sufficiently intelligible for an international community of users.

When the speaker is confronted with a linguistic or situational complication or an unexpected turn of events, comprehension may be slower or require clarification strategies.

Responses are usually immediate, appropriate, and informative.

Initiates and maintains exchanges even when dealing with an unexpected turn of events. Deals adequately with apparent misunderstandings by checking, confirming, or clarifying.

Note: The initial text of Appendix 2 has been transferred to AMC, see also the Explanatory Note.

Appendix 3 – Training courses for the issue of a CPL and an ATPL

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

1. This appendix describes the requirements for the different types of training courses for the issue of a CPL and an ATPL, with and without an IR.

2. An applicant wishing to transfer to another ATO during a training course shall apply to the competent authority for a formal assessment of the further hours of training required.

A. ATP integrated course – Aeroplanes

GENERAL

1. The aim of the ATP(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to enable them to operate as co-pilot on multi-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes in commercial air transport and to obtain the CPL(A)/IR.

2. An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(A) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) entrant, 50% of the hours flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum of 40 hours flying experience, or 45 hours if an aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual instruction flight time.

4. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level;

(b) visual and instrument flying training;

(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes; and

(d) UPRT in accordance with FCL.745.A unless applicants have already completed this training course before starting the ATP integrated course.’;

5. Applicants failing or being unable to complete the entire ATP(A) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicable requirements are met.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. An ATP(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction.

7.1. The MCC course shall comprise at least 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises.

7.2 The theoretical knowledge instruction in UPRT shall be conducted in accordance with FCL.745.A.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

8. An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL(A).

FLYING TRAINING

9. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 195 hours, including all progress tests, of which up to 55 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of 195 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a) 95 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 55 hours may be instrument ground time;

(b) 70 hours as PIC, of which up to 55 hours may be SPIC. The instrument flight time as SPIC shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours;

(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including one VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made; and

(d) 5 hours of flight time at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least:

(1) 1 hour of cross-country navigation;

(2) five solo take-offs; and

(3) five solo full-stop landings;

(e) UPRT flight instruction in accordance with FCL.745.A;

(f) 115 hours of instrument time comprising, at least:

(1) 20 hours as SPIC;

(2) 15 hours of MCC, for which an FFS or an FNPT II may be used;

(3) 50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to:

(i) 25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I; or

(ii) 40 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT II, an FTD 2 or an FFS, of which up to 10 hours may be conducted in an FNPT I.

Applicants holding a BIR or a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited.

(g) 5 hours in an aeroplane which:

(1) is certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons; and

(2) has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

SKILL TEST

10. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test on either a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane and the IR skill test on a multi-engine aeroplane.

B. ATP modular course – Aeroplanes

1. Applicants for an ATPL(A) who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall:

(a) hold at least a PPL(A) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and complete at least the following hours of theoretical knowledge instruction:

(1) for applicants holding a PPL(A): 650 hours;

(2) for applicants holding a CPL(A): 400 hours;

(3) for applicants holding an IR(A): 500 hours;

(4) for applicants holding a CPL(A) and an IR(A): 250 hours.

The theoretical knowledge instruction shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(A) is taken.

C. CPL/IR integrated course – Aeroplanes

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(A) and IR(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate single-pilot single-engine or multi-engine aeroplanes in commercial air transport and to obtain the CPL(A)/IR.

2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(A)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) entrant, 50% of the hours flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum of 40 hours flying experience, or 45 hours if an aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual instruction flight time.

4. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) and IR knowledge level; and

(b) visual and instrument flying training.

5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL/IR(A) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicable requirements are met.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. A CPL(A)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(A) and an IR.

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 180 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 40 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of 180 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a) 80 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time;

(b) 70 hours as PIC, of which up to 55 hours may be SPIC. The instrument flight time as SPIC shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours;

(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(d) 5 hours flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings; and

(e) 100 hours of instrument time comprising, at least:

(1) 20 hours as SPIC; and

(2) 50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to:

(i) 25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or

(ii) 40 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT II, FTD 2 or FFS, of which up to 10 hours may be conducted in an FNPT I.

Applicants holding a BIR or a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited; and

(f) 5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons that has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

SKILL TESTS

10. Upon completion of the related flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test and the IR skill test on either a multi-engine aeroplane or a single-engine aeroplane.

D. CPL integrated course – Aeroplanes

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a CPL(A).

2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(A) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) entrant, 50% of the hours flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum of 40 hours flying experience, or 45 hours if an aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual instruction flight time.

4. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and

(b) visual and instrument flying training.

5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(A) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicable requirements are met.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. A CPL(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEGDE EXAMINATION

7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(A).

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 150 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 5 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of 150 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a) 80 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time;

(b) 70 hours as PIC, of which up to 55 hours may be as SPIC;

(c) 20 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(d) 5 hours flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings;

(e) 10 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, FTD 2, FNPT II or FFS. Applicants holding a BIR or a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited;

(f) 5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least four persons that has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

SKILL TEST

9. Upon completion of the flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test on a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane.

E. CPL modular course – Aeroplanes

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(A) modular course is to train PPL(A) holders to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a CPL(A).

2. Before commencing a CPL(A) modular course an applicant shall be the holder of a PPL(A) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.

3. Before commencing the flight training the applicant shall:

(a) have completed 150 hours flight time; including 50 hours as PIC on aeroplanes of which 10 hours shall be cross-country.

 Except for the requirement of 50 hours as PIC in aeroplanes, hours as PIC in other categories of aircraft may account for the 150 hours of aeroplane flight time in any of the following cases:

(1) 20 hours in helicopters, if applicants hold a PPL(H);

(2) 50 hours in helicopters, if applicants hold a CPL(H);

(3) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes;

(4) 20 hours in airships, if applicants hold a PPL(As);

(5) 50 hours in airships, if applicants hold a CPL(As).

(b) have complied with the prerequisites for the issue of a class or type rating for multi-engine aeroplanes in accordance with Subpart H, if a multi-engine aeroplane is to be used on the skill test.

4. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(A) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO conducting theoretical knowledge instruction only.

5. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and

(b) visual and instrument flying training.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. An approved CPL(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(A).

FLYING TRAINING

8. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 25 hours dual flight instruction, including 10 hours of instrument instruction of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in a BITD, an FNPT I or II, an FTD 2 or an FFS.

9. Applicants holding a valid IR(A) shall be credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants holding a valid IR(H) shall be credited up to 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time, in which case at least 5 hours dual instrument instruction time shall be given in an aeroplane. Applicants holding a BIR or a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time.

10. (a) Applicants with a valid IR shall be given at least 15 hours dual visual flight instruction.

(b) Applicants without a night rating aeroplane shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night flight instruction, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings.

11. At least 5 hours of the flight instruction shall be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons and have a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

EXPERIENCE

12. The applicant for a CPL(A) shall have completed at least 200 hours flight time, including at least:

(a) 100 hours as PIC, of which 20 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, which shall include a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(b) 5 hours of flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings; and

(c) 10 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or FNPT II or FFS. Applicants holding a BIR or a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited;

(d) 6 hours of flight time shall be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane, if a multi-engine aeroplane is used for the skill test.

(e) Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 200 hours flight time, in the following cases:

(i) 30 hours in helicopter, if the applicant holds a PPL(H); or

(ii) 100 hours in helicopters, if the applicant holds a CPL(H); or

(iii) 30 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or

(iv) 30 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a PPL(As); or

(v) 60 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a CPL(As).

SKILL TEST

13. Upon completion of the flying training and relevant experience requirements the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test on either a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane.

F. ATP/IR integrated course – Helicopters

GENERAL

1. The aim of the ATP(H)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to enable them to operate as co-pilot on multi-pilot multi-engine helicopters in commercial air transport and to obtain the CPL(H)/IR.

2. An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(H)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant, 50% of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:

(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.

4. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) and IR knowledge level;

(b) visual and instrument flying training; and

(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters.

5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(H) /IR course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirements are met.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. An ATP(H)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction.

7. The MCC course shall comprise at least 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction exercises.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

8. An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL(H) and an IR.

FLYING TRAINING

9. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 195 hours, to include all progress tests. Within the total of 195 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a) 140 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(1) 75 hours visual instruction may include:

(i) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS, level C/D, or

(ii) 25 hours in a FTD 2,3, or

(iii) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III, or

(iv) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(2) 50 hours instrument instruction may include:

(i) up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II/III, or

(ii) 10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT 1 or an aeroplane;

(3) 15 hours MCC, for which a helicopter FFS or helicopter FTD 2,3(MCC) or FNPT II/III(MCC) may be used.

If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the helicopter FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the helicopter FNPT II/III.

(b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made.

(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight, including at least 10 hours of cross-country flight as SPIC including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(d) 5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing;

(e) 50 hours of dual instrument time comprising:

(i) 10 hours basic instrument instruction time, and

(ii) 40 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificated helicopter.

SKILL TESTS

10. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on a multi-engine helicopter and the IR skill test on an IFR certificated multi-engine helicopter and shall comply with the requirements for MCC training.

G. ATP integrated course – Helicopters

GENERAL

1. The aim of the ATP(H) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to enable them to operate as co-pilot on multi-pilot multi-engine helicopters limited to VFR privileges in commercial air transport and to obtain the CPL(H).

2. An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(H) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant, 50% of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:

(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.

4. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) knowledge level;

(b) visual and basic instrument flying training; and

(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters.

5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(H) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicable requirements are met.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. An ATP(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 650 hours of instruction.

7. The MCC course shall comprise at least 20 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction exercises.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

8. An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL (H).

FLYING TRAINING

9. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 150 hours, to include all progress tests. Within the total of 150 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a) 95 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(i) 75 hours visual instruction may include:

(1) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D, or

(2) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3, or

(3) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III, or

(4) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(ii) 10 hours basic instrument instruction may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane;

(iii) 10 hours MCC, for which a helicopter: helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3(MCC) or FNPT II/III(MCC) may be used.

If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the helicopter FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the helicopter FNPT II/III.

(b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight, including at least 10 hours of cross-country flight as SPIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(d) 5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.

SKILL TESTS

10. Upon completion of the related flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on a multi-engine helicopter and comply with MCC requirements.

H. ATP modular course – Helicopters

1. Applicants for an ATPL(H) who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall hold at least a PPL(H) and complete at least the following hours of instruction within a period of 18 months:

(a) for applicants holding a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention: 550 hours;

(b) for applicants holding a CPL(H): 300 hours.

2. Applicants for an ATPL(H)/IR who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall hold at least a PPL(H) and complete at least the following hours of instruction:

(a) for applicants holding a PPL(H): 650 hours;

(b) for applicants holding a CPL(H): 400 hours;

(c) for applicants holding an IR(H): 500 hours;

(d) for applicants holding a CPL(H) and an IR(H): 250 hours.

I. CPL/IR integrated course – Helicopters

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(H)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate single-pilot multi-engine helicopters and to obtain the CPL(H)/IR multi-engine helicopter.

2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(H)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding a PPL(H), 50% of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:

(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.

4. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) and IR knowledge level, and the initial multi-engine helicopter type rating; and

(b) visual and instrument flying training.

5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(H)/IR course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirements are met.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. A CPL(H)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(H) and an IR.

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 180 hours including all progress tests. Within the 180 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a) 125 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(i) 75 hours visual instruction, which may include:

(1) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D, or

(2) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3, or

(3) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III, or

(4) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(ii) 50 hours instrument instruction which may include:

(1) up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3, or FNPT II,III, or

(2) 10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane.

If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the FNPT II/III.

(b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

(c) 10 hours dual cross-country flying;

(d) 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(e) 5 hours of flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing;

(f) 50 hours of dual instrument time comprising:

(i) 10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and

(ii) 40 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificated helicopter.

SKILL TEST

9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on either a multi-engine or a single-engine helicopter and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated helicopter.

J. CPL integrated course – Helicopters

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(H) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a CPL(H).

2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(H) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding a PPL(H), 50% of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:

(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.

4. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and

(b) visual and instrument flying training.

5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(H) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicable requirements are met.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. An approved CPL(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction or 200 hours if the applicant is the holder of a PPL.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(H).

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 135 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time. Within the 135 hours total, applicants shall complete at least:

(a) 85 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(i) up to 75 hours may be visual instruction, and may include:

(1) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D, or

(2) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3, or

(3) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III, or

(4) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG.

(ii) up to 10 hours may be instrument instruction, and may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane.

If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the FNPT II/III.

(b) 50 hours as PIC, of which 35 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;

(c) 10 hours dual cross-country flying;

(d) 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(e) 5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing;

(f) 10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in a helicopter.

SKILL TEST

9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test.

K. CPL modular course – Helicopters

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(H) modular course is to train PPL(H) holders to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a CPL(H).

2. Before commencing a CPL(H) modular course an applicant shall be the holder of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.

3. Before commencing the flight training the applicant shall:

(a) have completed 155 hours flight time, including 50 hours as PIC in helicopters of which 10 hours shall be cross- country.

  Except for the requirement of 50 hours as PIC in helicopters, hours as PIC in other categories of aircraft may account for the 155 hours of helicopter flight time in any of the following cases:

  (1)  20 hours in aeroplanes if applicants hold a PPL(A);

  (2)  50 hours in aeroplanes if applicants hold a CPL(A);

  (3)  10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes;

  (4)  20 hours in airships if applicants hold a PPL(As);

  (5)  50 hours in airships if applicants hold a CPL(As);

(b) have complied with FCL.725 and FCL.720.H if a multi-engine helicopter is to be used on the skill test.

4. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(H) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO that conducts theoretical knowledge instruction only.

5. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and

(b) visual and instrument flying training.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. An approved CPL(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(H).

FLYING TRAINING

8. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 30 hours dual flight instruction, of which:

(a) 20 hours visual instruction, which may include 5 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II,III; and

(b) 10 hours instrument instruction, which may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane.

9. Applicants holding a valid IR(H) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants holding a valid IR(A) shall complete at least 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time in a helicopter.

10. Applicants without a night rating helicopter shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night flight instruction comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.

EXPERIENCE

11. The applicant for a CPL(H) shall have completed at least 185 hours flight time, including 50 hours as PIC, of which 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made.

Hours as pilot-in-command of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours flight time, in the following cases:

(a) 20 hours in aeroplanes, if the applicant holds a PPL(A); or

(b) 50 hours in aeroplanes, if the applicant holds a CPL(A); or

(c) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or

(d) 20 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a PPL(As); or

(e) 50 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a CPL(As).

SKILL TEST

12. Upon completion of the related flying training and relevant experience, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test.

L. CPL/IR integrated course – Airships

1. The aim of the CPL(As)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate airships and to obtain the CPL(As)/IR.

2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(As)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding a PPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H) shall be credited up to a maximum of:

(a) 10 hours, of which up to 5 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b) 15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction, if an airship night rating has been obtained.

4. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) and IR knowledge level, and the initial airship type rating; and

(b) visual and instrument flying training.

5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL/IR(As) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirements are met.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. A CPL(As)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(As) and an IR.

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 80 hours including all progress tests. Within the 80 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a) 60 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(i) 30 hours visual instruction, which may include:

(1) 12 hours in an airship FFS, or

(2) 10 hours in an airship FTD, or

(3) 8 hours in an airship FNPT II/III, or

(4) 8 hours in an aeroplane, helicopter or TMG;

(ii) 30 hours instrument instruction which may include:

(1) up to 12 hours in an airship FFS or FTD or FNPT II,III, or

(2) 6 hours in at least a airship FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane.

If the airship used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to 8 hours.

(b) 20 hours as PIC, of which 5 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be made;             

(c) 5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM) in the course of which two full stop landings at the destination aerodrome shall be made;

(d) 5 hours flight time in airships shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include take-off and landing;

(e) 30 hours of dual instrument time comprising:

(i) 10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and

(ii) 20 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificated airship.

SKILL TEST

9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test on either a multi-engine or a single-engine airship and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated multi-engine airship.

M. CPL integrated course – Airships

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(As) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a CPL(AS).

2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(As) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding a PPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H) shall be credited up to a maximum of:

(a) 10 hours, of which up to 5 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b) 15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction if a airship night rating has been obtained.

4. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and

(b) visual and instrument flying training.

5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(As) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicable requirements are met.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. An approved CPL(As) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction or 200 hours if the applicant is a PPL holder.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(As).

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 50 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time. Within the 50 hours total, applicants shall complete at least:

(a) 30 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time;

(b) 20 hours as PIC;

(c) 5 hours dual cross-country flying;

(d) 5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM) in the course of which two full stop landings at the destination aerodrome shall be made;

(e) 5 hours flight time in airships shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include take-off and landing;

(f) 10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in an airship.

SKILL TEST

9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test.

N. CPL modular course – Airships

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(As) modular course is to train PPL(As) holders to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a CPL(As).

2. Before commencing a CPL(As) modular course an applicant shall:

(a) hold a PPL(As) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;

(b) have completed 200 hours flight time as a pilot on airships, including 100 hours as PIC, of which 50 hours shall be cross-country.

3. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(As) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO that conducts theoretical knowledge instruction only.

4. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and

(b) visual and instrument flying training.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

5. An approved CPL(As) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

6. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(As).

FLYING TRAINING

7. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 20 hours dual flight instruction, of which:

             10 hours visual instruction, which may include 5 hours in an airship FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II,III; and

             10 hours instrument instruction, which may include 5 hours in at least an airship FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane.

8. Applicants holding a valid IR(As) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants holding a valid IR in another category of aircraft shall complete at least 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time in an airship.

9. Applicants without a night rating airship shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night flight instruction comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.

EXPERIENCE

10. The applicant for a CPL(As) shall have completed at least 250 hours flight time in airships, including 125 hours as PIC, of which 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM), in the course of which a full stop landing at destination aerodrome.

Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours flight time, in the following cases;

(a) 30 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters, if the applicant holds a PPL(A) or PPL(H) respectively; or

(b) 60 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters, if the applicant holds a CPL(A) or CPL(H) respectively; or

(c) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or

(d) 10 hours in balloons.

SKILL TEST

11. Upon completion of the related flying training and relevant experience, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test.

GENERAL

(a) When ensuring that the applicant complies with the prerequisites for the course, in accordance with ORA.ATO.145, the ATO should check that the applicant has enough knowledge of mathematics, physics and English to facilitate the understanding of the theoretical knowledge instruction content of the course. 

(b) Whenever reference is made to a certain amount of hours of training, this means a full hour. Time not directly assigned to training (such as breaks, etc.) is not to be counted towards the total amount of time that is required.

(c) The UPRT elements and components specified in AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to Appendix 5 point (a) should be integrated into the flying training phases or modules.

(d)  The flight instruction syllabus should take into account the principles of TEM.

A. ATP integrated course: aeroplanes 

(a) The ATP integrated course should last between 12 and 36 months. This period may be extended where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.

CREDITING

(b) Credit for previous experience given to an applicant who already holds a PPL should be entered into the applicant’s training record. In the case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the competent authority, an ATO may designate certain dual exercises to be flown in a helicopter or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

(c) The 750 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable proportions:

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

The 750 hours of instruction should be divided in such a way that in each subject the minimum hours are:

(1)  Air law        35 hours

(2)  Aircraft general knowledge     100 hours

(3)  Flight performance and planning    120 hours

(4)  Human performance and limitations    35 hours

(5)  Meteorology       60 hours 

(6)  Navigation        90 hours

(7)  Operational procedures      25 hours

(8)  Principles of flight       55 hours

(9)  Communications       20 hours

Other subdivisions of hours may be agreed upon between the competent authority and the ATO.

FLYING TRAINING

(d) The flying instruction is divided into six phases:

(1) Phase 1:

Exercises up to the first solo flight comprise a total of at least 10 hours dual flight instruction on an SE aeroplane including:

(i) pre-flight operations, mass and balance determination, aeroplane inspection and servicing;

(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and precautions;

(iii) control of the aeroplane by external visual references;

(iv) normal take-offs and landings;

(v) the basic UPRT exercises as specified in point (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to Appendix 5;

(vi) simulated engine failure.

(2) Phase 2:

Exercises up to the first solo cross-country flight comprise a total of at least 10 hours of dual flight instruction and at least 10 hours solo flight including:

(i) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) takeoffs and short-field landings;

(ii) flight by reference solely to instruments, including the completion of a 180 ° turn;

(iii) dual cross-country flying using external visual references, DR and radio navigation aids, diversion procedures;

(iv) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;

(v) crosswind take-offs and landings;

(vi) abnormal and emergency procedures and manoeuvres, including simulated aeroplane equipment malfunctions;

(vii) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;

(viii) knowledge of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather conditions for flight and use of AIS.

(3) Phase 3:

Exercises up to the VFR navigation progress test comprise a total of at least 5 hours of dual instruction and at least 40 hours as PIC.

The dual instruction and testing up to the VFR navigation progress test should comprise:

(i) repetition of exercises of phases 1 and 2;

(ii) VFR navigation progress test conducted by an FI not connected with the applicant’s training;

(iii) dual night flight instruction.

(4) Phase 4:

Exercises up to the instrument rating skill test comprise:

(i) at least 55 hours instrument flight, which may contain up to 25 hours of instrument ground time in an FNPT I or up to 40 hours in an FNPT II or FFS which should be conducted by an FI or an authorised SFI;

(ii) 20 hours instrument time flown as SPIC;

(iii) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate ATS documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(iv) procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

(A) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;

(B) SIDs and arrivals;

(C) en-route IFR procedures;

(D) holding procedures;

(E) instrument approaches to specified minima;

(F) missed approach procedures;

(G) landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(v) in-flight manoeuvres and specific flight characteristics and the basic UPRT exercises as specified in Sections A, B, C and D of Table 2 in point (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to Appendix 5;

(vi) operation of an ME aeroplane in the exercises of (iv), including operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative, and engine shut-down and restart (the latter training should be conducted at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FSTD);

(vii)  after completion of instrument training that is equivalent to the basic instrument flight module set out in AMC2 to Appendix 6, take-offs and landings as PIC at night.

(5) Phase 5: Advanced UPRT in accordance with point FCL.745.A;

(6) Phase 6:

(i) instruction and testing in MCC comprising the relevant training requirements;

(ii) if a type rating for single-pilot aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations, or multi-pilot aeroplanes is not required on completion of this phase, the applicant should be issued with a certificate of course completion for MCC training.

B. ATP modular theoretical knowledge course: aeroplanes

(a) The aim of this course is to train pilots who have not received the theoretical knowledge instruction during an integrated course to the level of theoretical knowledge required for the ATPL.

(b) An approved course may contain in suitable proportions:

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

Approved distance-learning (correspondence) courses may also be offered as part of the course. The minimum amount of classroom instruction, as required by ORA.ATO.305, may include all of the above except item (b)(9).

(c) The ATP modular course should be completed within 18 months. This period may be extended where additional training is provided by the ATO. The flight instruction and skill test need to be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical examinations.

C. CPL/IR integrated course: aeroplanes

(a) The CPL/IR integrated course should last between 9 and 30 months. This period may be extended where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.

CREDITING

(b) Credit for previous experience given to an applicant who already holds a PPL should be entered into the applicant’s training record. In the case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the competent authority, an ATO may designate certain dual exercises to be flown in a helicopter or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

(c) The 500 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable proportions: 

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

The 500 hours of instruction should be divided in such a way that in each subject the minimum hours are:

(1)  Air law        25 hours

(2)  Aircraft general knowledge     75 hours

(3)  Flight performance and planning    80 hours

(4)  Human performance and limitations    20 hours

(5)  Meteorology       40 hours 

(6)  Navigation        55 hours

(7)  Operational procedures      15 hours

(8)  Principles of flight       35 hours

(9)  Communications       15 hours

Other subdivisions of hours may be agreed upon between the competent authority and the ATO.

FLYING TRAINING

(d) The flying instruction is divided into four phases:

(1) Phase 1:

Exercises up to the first solo flight comprise a total of at least 10 hours dual flight instruction on an SE aeroplane, including:

(i) pre-flight operations, mass and balance determination, aeroplane inspection and servicing;

(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and precautions;

(iii) control of the aeroplane by external visual references;

(iv) normal take-offs and landings;

(v) the basic UPRT exercises as specified in point (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to Appendix 5;

(vi) simulated engine failure.

(2) Phase 2:

Exercises up to the first solo cross-country flight comprise a total of at least 10 hours of dual flight instruction and at least 10 hours solo flight including:

(i) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) take-offs and short-field landings;

(ii) flight by reference solely to instruments, including the completion of a 180° turn;

(iii) dual cross-country flying using external visual references, DR and radio navigation aids, diversion procedures;

(iv) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;

(v) crosswind take-offs and landings;

(vi) abnormal and emergency operations and manoeuvres, including simulated aeroplane equipment malfunctions;

(vii) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;

(viii) knowledge of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather conditions for flight and use of AIS.

(3) Phase 3:

Exercises up to the VFR navigation progress test comprise a total of at least 5 hours of instruction and at least 40 hours as PIC.

The dual instruction and testing up to the VFR navigation progress test and the skill test should contain the following:

(i) repetition of exercises of phases 1 and 2;

(ii) VFR navigation progress test conducted by an FI not connected with the applicant’s training;

(iii) dual night flight instruction.

(4) Phase 4:

Exercises up to the instrument rating skill test comprise:

(i) at least 55 hours instrument time, which may contain up to 25 hours of instrument ground time in an FNPT I or up to 40 hours in an FNPT II or FFS which should be conducted by an FI or SFI;

(ii) 20 hours instrument time flown as SPIC;

(iii) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate ATS documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(iv) procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

(A)  transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;

(B) SIDs and arrivals;

(C) en-route IFR procedures;

(D) holding procedures;

(E) instrument approaches to specified minima;

(F) missed approach procedures;

(G) landings from instrument approaches, including circling.

(v) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics and the basic UPRT exercises as specified in Sections A, B, C and D of Table 2 in paragraph (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to Appendix 5;

(vi) operation of either an SE or an ME aeroplane in the exercises of (iv), including in the case of an ME aeroplane operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine shut-down and restart. The latter exercise is to be conducted at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FSTD;

(vii)  after completion of instrument training that is equivalent to the basic instrument flight module set out in AMC2 to Appendix 6, take-offs and landings as PIC at night.

D. CPL integrated course: aeroplanes 

(a) The CPL integrated course should last between 9 and 24 months. This period may be extended where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.

CREDITING

(b) Credit for the hours flown should be entered into the applicant’s training record. In the case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the competent authority, an ATO may designate certain dual exercises to be flown in a helicopter or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

(c) The 350 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable proportions:

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority. 

FLYING TRAINING

(d) The flying instruction is divided into four phases:

(1) Phase 1:

Exercises up to the first solo flight comprise a total of at least 10 hours dual flight instruction on an SE aeroplane, including:

(i) pre-flight operations, mass and balance determination, aeroplane inspection and servicing;

(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and precautions;

(iii) control of the aeroplane by external visual references;

(iv) normal take-offs and landings;

(v) the basic UPRT exercises as specified in point (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to Appendix 5;

(vi) simulated engine failure.

(2) Phase 2:

Exercises up to the first solo cross-country flight comprise a total of at least 10 hours of dual flight instruction and at least 10 hours solo flight including:

(i) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) take-offs and short-field landings;

(ii) flight by reference solely to instruments, including the completion of a 180° turn;

(iii) dual cross-country flying using external visual references, DR and radio navigation aids, diversion procedures;

(iv) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;

(v) crosswind take-offs and landings;

(vi) abnormal and emergency procedures and manoeuvres, including simulated aeroplane equipment malfunctions;

(vii) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;

(viii) knowledge of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather conditions for flight and use of AIS.

(3) Phase 3:

Exercises up to the VFR navigation progress test comprise a total of at least 30 hours instruction and at least 58 hours as PIC, including:

(i) at least 10 hours instrument time, which may contain 5 hours of instrument ground time in an FNPT or an FFS and should be conducted by an FI or SFI;

(ii) repetition of exercises of phases 1 and 2, which should include at least 5 hours in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least four persons and have a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear;

(iii) night flight time including, g, after completion of instrument training that is equivalent to the basic instrument flight module set out in AMC2 to Appendix 6, take-offs and landings as PIC.

(4) Phase 4:

The dual instruction and testing up to the CPL(A) skill test contain the following:

(i) up to 30 hours instruction which may be allocated to specialised aerial work training; 

(ii) repetition of exercises in Phase 3, as required;

(iii) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics including the basic UPRT exercises as specified in point (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to Appendix 5;

(iv)  ME training.

If required, operation of an ME aeroplane including operation of the aeroplane with one engine simulated inoperative, and engine shutdown and restart (the latter exercise at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FSTD).

E. CPL modular course: aeroplanes

(a) The CPL modular course should tbe completed within 18 months. This period may be extended where additional training is provided by the ATO. The flight instruction and skill test need to be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical examinations.

CREDITING

Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited with an amount of hours to meet the requirement of 150 hours of flight time of Appendix 3, Part E, point (3)(a). The amount of credited hours should be decided by the ATO where the applicant takes the training course on the basis of a pre-entry flight test, but in any case, should have been completed only in one aircraft category other than aeroplane.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

(b) The 250 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable proportions:

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodromes or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

Approved distance-learning (correspondence) courses may also be offered as part of the course. The minimum amount of classroom instruction, as required by ORA.ATO.305, may include all of the above except item (b)(9).

FLYING TRAINING

(c) The following flight time is suggested for the flying training:

(1) visual flight training:      suggested flight time

(i) Exercise 1:

pre-flight operations: mass and

balance determination, aeroplane

inspection and servicing.

(ii) Exercise 2:

take-off, traffic pattern,     0:45 hours

approach and landing,

use of checklist, collision avoidance

and checking procedures.

(iii) Exercise 3:

traffic patterns: simulated     0:45 hours

engine failure during and after take-off.

(iv)  Exercise 4:

maximum performance     1:00 hours

(short field and obstacle clearance)

take-offs and short-field landings.

(v) Exercise 5:

crosswind take-offs,      1:00 hours

landings and go-arounds.

(vi) Exercise 6:

 Arresting divergence of the aeroplane   0:45 hours

from intended flight path, Preventing flight

at airspeeds inappropriate for the (intended flight)

conditions, High airspeed (including flight at

relatively high airspeed), Steep turns Nose-low

attitudes at various bank angles (including spiral dive).

(vii)  Exercise 7: 

Arresting divergence of the aeroplane   0:45 hours

from intended flight path, Preventing flight

at airspeeds inappropriate for the (intended flight)

conditions, slow flight, nose-high attitudes

at various bank angles, spin avoidance, stall events

in the following configurations:

             take-off configuration,

             clean configuration, and

             landing configuration.

(viii)  Exercise 8:

cross-country flying      10:00 hours

using DR and radio navigation aids; flight

planning by the applicant; filing of ATC flight plan;

evaluation of weather briefing documentation,

NOTAM, etc.; R/T procedures and phraseology;

positioning by radio navigation aids;

operation to, from and transiting controlled

aerodromes, compliance with ATS procedures

for VFR flights, simulated radio communication

failure, weather deterioration, diversion procedures;

simulated engine failure during cruise flight;

selection of an emergency landing strip.

(2) instrument flight training:

(i) This module’s content is identical to that of the 10-hour basic instrument flight module as set out in AMC2 to Appendix 6. This module is focused on the basics of flying by sole reference to instruments, including limited panel and basic UPRT exercises as specified in Sections A, B and C of Table 2 in point (b) of AMC2 Appendix 3; AMC1 Appendix 5.

(ii) All exercises may be performed in an FNPT I or II or an FFS. If instrument flight training is in VMC, a suitable means of simulating IMC for the student should be used.

(iii) A BITD may be used for the following exercises: (9), (10), (11) and (14).

(iv) The use of the BITD is subject to the following:

(A) the training is complemented by exercises in an aeroplane;

(B) the record of the parameters of the flight is available;

(C) an FI(A) or IRI(A) conducts the instruction.

(v)  Exercise 9:

Basic instrument flying without    0:30 hours 

external visual cues; horizontal flight;

power changes for acceleration or

deceleration, maintaining straight and

level flight; turns in level flight with 15°

and 25° bank, left and right; roll-out

onto predetermined headings.

(vi)  Exercise 10:

Repetition of exercise 9;      0:45 hours

additionally climbing and descending,

maintaining heading and speed, transition to

horizontal flight; climbing and descending turns.

(vii)  Exercise 11:

Instrument pattern:      0:45 hours

(1) start exercise, decelerate to approach speed, flaps into approach configuration;

(2) initiate standard turn (left or right);

(3) roll out on opposite heading, maintain new heading for 1 minute;

(4) standard turn, gear down, descend 500 ft/min;

(5) roll out on initial heading, maintain descent (500 ft/min) and new heading for 1 minute;

(6) transition to horizontal flight, 1.000 ft below initial flight level;

(7) initiate go-around;

(8) climb at best rate of climb speed.

(viii)  Exercise 12:

Repetition of exercise 9 and steep    0:45 hours

turns with 45° bank; recovery from unusual attitudes.

(ix)  Exercise 13:

Repetition of exercise 12     0:45 hours

(x) Exercise 14:        

Radio navigation using VOR,     0:45 hours

NDB or, if available, VDF; interception of

predetermined QDM and QDR.

(xi)  Exercise 15:

Repetition of exercise 9 and      0:45 hours

recovery from nose-high attitudes at various

bank angles, recovery from nose-low

attitudes at various bank angles

(xii)  Exercise 16:

Repetition of exercise 9, turns and     0:45 hours

level change and recovery from nose-high

attitudes at various bank angles, recovery from

nose-low attitudes at various bank angles with

simulated failure of the artificial horizon

or directional gyro.

(xiii)  Exercise 17:

Basic UPRT exercises as specified   0:45 hours

in point (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3;

AMC1 to Appendix 5, excluding those

manoeuvres which have already been

completed during exercises 15 and 16

(xiv)  Exercise 18:

Repetition of exercises (14), (16) and (17).  3:00 hours

(3) ME training

If required, operation of an ME aeroplane in the exercises 1 through 17, including operation of the aeroplane with one engine simulated inoperative, and engine shutdown and restart. Before commencing training, the applicant should have complied with the type and class ratings requirements as appropriate to the aeroplane used for the test.

(4)  Applicants who need to complete night training in accordance with point 10(b) of Section E of Appendix 3 to Part-FCL should perform take-offs and landings as PIC at night only after having completed the instrument flight training specified in point (2)(i) of ‘FLYING TRAINING’ of Section E of this AMC.

F. ATP/IR integrated course: helicopters

(a) The ATP/IR integrated course should last between 12 and 36 months. This period may be extended where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.

CREDITING

(b) Credit for the hours flown should be entered into the applicant’s training record. In case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the competent authority, an ATO may designate certain dual exercises to be flown in an aeroplane or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

(c) The 750 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable proportions:

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress test, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

The 750 hours of instruction should be divided in such a way that in each subject the minimum hours are:

(1)  Air law       35 hours

(2)  Aircraft general knowledge     100 hours

(3)  Flight performance and planning    120 hours

(4)  Human performance and limitations   35 hours

(5)  Meteorology       60 hours

(6)  Navigation        90 hours

(7)  Operational procedures     25 hours

(8) Principles of flight       55 hours

(9)  Communications       20 hours

Other subdivisions of hours may be agreed upon between the competent authority and the ATO.

(d) The flight instruction is divided into four phases:

(1) phase 1:

Flight exercises up to the first solo flight comprise a total of not less than 12 hours dual flight instruction on a helicopter, including:

(1) pre-flight operations, mass and balance determination, helicopter inspection and servicing;

(2) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and procedures;

(3) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;

(4) take-offs, landings, hovering, look-out turns and normal transitions from and to the hover;

(5) emergency procedures, basic auto-rotations, simulated engine failure, ground resonance recovery if relevant to type.

(2) phase 2:

Flight exercises until general handling and day VFR navigation progress check, and basic instrument flying progress check. This phase comprises a total flight time of not less than 128 hours including 73 hours of dual flight instruction flight time and including at least 5 hours VFR conversion training on an ME helicopter, 15 hours of solo flight and 40 hours flown as student PIC. The instruction and testing contain the following:

(i) sideways and backwards flight, turns on the spot;

(ii) incipient vortex ring recovery;

(iii) advanced/touchdown auto-rotations, simulated engine-off landings, practice forced landings. Simulated equipment malfunctions and emergency procedures relating to malfunctions of engines, controls, electrical and hydraulic circuits;

(iv) steep turns;

(v) transitions, quick stops, out of wind manoeuvres, sloping ground landings and take-offs;

(vi) limited power and confined area operations, including low level operations to and from unprepared sites;

(vii) flight by sole reference to basic flight instruments, including completion of a 180 ° turn and recovery from unusual attitudes to simulate inadvertent entry into cloud;

(viii) cross-country flying by external visual reference, DR and radio navigation aids, diversion procedures;

(ix) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;

(x) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes; compliance with ATS procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;

(xi) application of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather conditions for flight and use of AIS;

(xii) night flight, including take-offs and landings as PIC;

(xiii) general handling, day VFR navigation and basic instrument flying progress checks in accordance with Appendix 4 to Part-FCL, conducted by an FI not connected with the applicant’s training.

(3) phase 3:

Flight exercises up to IR skill test. This part comprises a total of 40 hours dual instrument flight time, including 10 hours of an ME IFR certificated helicopter.

The instruction and testing should contain the following:

(i) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate ATS documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(ii) procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

(A) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;

(B) SIDs and arrivals;

(C) en-route IFR procedures;

(D) holding procedures;

(E) instrument approaches to specified minima;

(F) missed approach procedure;

(G) landings from instrument approaches;

(H) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(I) instrument exercises with one engine simulated inoperative. 

(4) phase 4:

Instruction in MCC should comprise the relevant training set out in FCL.735.H and AMC1 FCL.735.A, FCL.735.H and FCL.735.As.

If a type rating for MP helicopter is not required on completion of this part, the applicant should be provided with a certificate of course completion for MCC training.

G.  ATP integrated course: helicopters

(a) The ATP integrated course should last between 12 and 36 months. This period may be extended where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.

CREDITING

(b) Credit for the hours flown should be entered into the applicant’s training record. In case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the competent authority, an ATO may designate certain dual exercises to be flown in an aeroplane or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

(c) The 650 hours of instruction, which also cover the area 100 KSA, may include in suitable proportions:

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

The 650 hours of instruction should be divided in such a way that in each subject the minimum hours are:

(1) Air law        30 hours

(2)  Aircraft general knowledge    90 hours

(3)  Flight performance and planning   90 hours

(4)  Human performance and limitations   30 hours

(5)  Meteorology       50 hours

(6)  Navigation        70 hours

(7)  Operational procedures      20 hours

(8)  Principles of flight       45 hours

(9)  Communications       15 hours

Other subdivisions of hours may be agreed upon between the competent authority and the ATO.

(d) The flight instruction is divided into three phases:

(1) phase 1:

Flight exercises up to the first solo flight comprise a total of not less than 12 hours dual flight instruction on a helicopter, including:  

(i) pre-flight operations, mass and balance determination, helicopter inspection and servicing;

(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and procedures;

(iii) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;

(iv) take-offs, landings, hovering, look-out turns and normal transitions from and to the hover;

(v) emergency procedures, basic auto-rotations, simulated engine failure, ground resonance recovery if relevant to type.

(2) phase 2:

Flight exercises until general handling and day VFR navigation progress and basic instrument flying progress check conducted by an FI not connected with the applicant’s training. This phase comprises a total flight time of not less than 128 hours, including 73 hours of dual instruction flight time and including at least 5 hours VFR conversion training on an ME helicopter, 15 hours of solo flight and 40 hours flown as student PIC. The instruction and testing contain the following:

(i) sideways and backwards flight, turns on the spot;

(ii) incipient vortex ring recovery;

(iii) touchdown or advanced auto-rotations, simulated engine-off landings, practice forced landings. Simulated equipment malfunctions and emergency procedures relating to malfunctions of engines, controls, electrical and hydraulic circuits;

(iv) steep turns;

(v) transitions, quick stops, out of wind manoeuvres, sloping ground landings and take-offs;

(vi) limited power and confined area operations, including low level operations to and from unprepared sites;

(vii) 10 hours flight by sole reference to basic flight instruments, including completion of a 180 ° turn and recovery from unusual attitudes to simulate inadvertent entry into cloud;

(viii) cross-country flying by external visual reference, DR and radio navigation aids, diversion procedures;

(ix) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;

(x) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;

(xi) application of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather conditions for flight and use of AIS;

(xii) night flight, including take-offs and landings as PIC;

(xiii) general handling, day VFR navigation and basic instrument flying progress checks in accordance with Appendix 4 to Part-FCL, conducted by an FI not connected with the applicant’s training.

(3) phase 3:

Instruction in MCC comprises the relevant training set out in FCL.735.H and AMC1 FCL.735.A, FCL.735.H and FCL.735.As.

If a type rating for MP helicopter is not required on completion of this part, the applicant should be provided with a certificate of course completion for MCC training.

H. ATP modular theoretical knowledge course: helicopters

(a) The aim of this course is to train pilots who have not received the theoretical knowledge instruction during an integrated course to the level of theoretical knowledge required for the ATPL.

(b) An approved course, which also covers the area 100 KSA, may contain in suitable proportions:

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

Approved distance-learning (correspondence) courses may also be offered as part of the course. The minimum amount of classroom instruction, as required by ORA.ATO.305, may include all of the above except item (b)(9).

(c) The ATP modular course should be completed within 18 months. This period may be extended where additional training is provided by the ATO. The flight instruction and skill test need to be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical examinations.

I. CPL/IR integrated course: helicopters

(a) The CPL/IR integrated course should last between 9 and 30 months. This period may be extended where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.

CREDITING

(b) Credit for the hours flown should be entered into the applicant’s training record. In case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the competent authority, an ATO may designate certain dual exercises to be flown in an aeroplane or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

(c) The 500 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable proportions:

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

The 500 hours of instruction should be divided in such a way that in each subject the minimum hours are:

(1) Air law        25 hours

(2) Aircraft general knowledge     75 hours

(3) Flight performance and planning    80 hours

(4) Human performance and limitations   20 hours

(5) Meteorology       40 hours 

(6) Navigation        55 hours

(7) Operational procedures      15 hours

(8) Principles of flight       35 hours

(9) Communications       15 hours

Other subdivision of hours may be agreed upon between the competent authority and the ATO.

FLYING TRAINING

(d) The flight instruction is divided into three phases: 

(1) phase 1:

Flight exercises up to the first solo flight. This part comprises a total of at least 12 hours dual flight instruction on a helicopter including:

(i) pre-flight operations: mass and balance determination, helicopter inspection and servicing;

(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and procedures;

(iii) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;

(iv) take-offs, landings, hovering, look-out turns and normal transitions from and to the hover;

(v) emergency procedures, basic auto-rotation, simulated engine failure, ground resonance recovery if relevant to type.

(2) phase 2:

Flight exercises until general handling and day VFR navigation progress check conducted by an FI not connected with the applicant’s training, and basic instrument progress check. This part comprises a total flight time of not less than 128 hours, including 73 hours of dual instruction flight time and including at least 5 hours VFR conversion training on an ME helicopter, 15 hours of solo flight and 40 hours flown as SPIC. The instruction and testing contain the following:

(i) sideways and backwards flight, turns on the spot;

(ii) incipient vortex ring recovery;

(iii) touchdown or advanced auto-rotation and simulated engine-off landings, practice forced landings. Simulated equipment malfunctions and emergency procedures relating to malfunctions of engines, controls, electrical and hydraulic circuits;

(iv) steep turns;

(v) transitions, quick stops, out of wind manoeuvres, sloping ground landings and take-offs;

(vi) limited power and confined area operations, including selection of and low level operations to and from unprepared sites;

(vii) flight by sole reference to basic flight instruments, including completion of 180 degree turn and recovery from unusual attitudes to simulate inadvertent entry into cloud;

(viii) cross-country flying by external visual reference, DR and radio navigation aids and diversion procedures;

(ix) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;

(x) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;

(xi) application of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather conditions for flight and use of AIS;

(xii) night flight, including take-offs and landings as PIC;

(xiii) general handling, day VFR navigation and basic instrument flying progress checks in accordance with Appendix 4 to Part-FCL, conducted by an FI not connected with the applicant’s training.

(3) phase 3:

Flight exercises up to IR skill test. This part comprises a total of 40 hours dual instrument flight time, including 10 hours of an ME IFR certificated helicopter.

The instruction and testing should contain the following:

(i) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate ATS documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(ii) procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

(A) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;

(B) SIDs and arrivals;

(C) en-route IFR procedures;

(D) holding procedures;

(E) instrument approaches to specified minima;

(F) missed approach procedure;

(G) landings from instrument approaches;

(H) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(I) instrument exercises with one engine simulated inoperative.

J. CPL integrated course: helicopters

(a) The CPL integrated course should last between 9 and 24 months. This period may be extended where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.

CREDITING

(b) Credit for the hours flown should be entered into the applicant’s training record. In case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the competent authority, an ATO may designate certain dual exercises to be flown in an aeroplane or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

(c) The 350 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable proportions:

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

The 350 hours of instruction should be divided in such a way that in each subject the minimum hours are:

(1)  Air law        15 hours

(2)  Aircraft general knowledge     40 hours

(3)  Flight performance and planning    35 hours

(4)  Human performance and limitations    10 hours

(5)  Meteorology      30 hours 

(6)  Navigation        35 hours

(7)  Operational procedures      10 hours

(8)  Principles of flight       30 hours

(9)  Communications       10 hours

Other subdivisions of hours may be agreed upon between the competent authority and the ATO.

FLYING TRAINING 

(d) The flight instruction is divided into two phases:

(1) phase 1:

Flight exercises up to the first solo flight. This part comprises a total of not less than 12 hours dual flight instruction on a helicopter, including: 

(1) pre-flight operations: mass and balance determination, helicopter inspection and servicing;

(2) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and procedures;

(3) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;

(4) take-offs, landings, hovering, look-out turns and normal transitions from and to the hover;

(5) emergency procedures, basic auto-rotations, simulated engine failure, ground resonance recovery if relevant to type.

(2) phase 2:

Flight exercises until general handling and day VFR navigation progress check conducted by an FI not connected with the applicant’s training, and basic instrument progress check. This part comprises a total flight time of not less than 123 hours, including 73 hours of dual instruction flight time, 15 hours of solo flight and 35 hours flown as SPIC. The instruction and testing contain the following:

(i) sideways and backwards flight, turns on the spot;

(ii) incipient vortex ring recovery;

(iii) touchdown or advanced auto-rotations and simulated engine-off landings, practice forced landings. Simulated equipment malfunctions and emergency procedures relating to malfunctions of engines, controls, electrical and hydraulic circuits;

(iv) steep turns;

(v) transitions, quick stops, out of wind manoeuvres, sloping ground landings and take-offs;

(vi) limited power and confined area operations, including selection of and low level operations to and from unprepared sites;

(vii) flight by sole reference to basic flight instruments, including completion of a 180° turn and recovery from unusual attitudes to simulate inadvertent entry into cloud;

(viii) cross-country flying by external visual reference, DR and radio navigation aids, diversion procedures;

(ix) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;

(x) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;

(xi) application of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather conditions for flight and use of AIS;

(xii) night flight, including take-offs and landings as PIC;

(xiii) general handling, day VFR navigation and basic instrument flying progress checks in accordance with Appendix 4 to Part-FCL, conducted by an FI not connected with the applicant’s training.

K. CPL modular course: helicopters

(a) The CPL modular course should be completed within 18 months. This period may be extended where additional training is provided by the ATO. The flight instruction and skill test need to be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical examinations.

CREDITING

Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited with an amount of hours to meet the requirement of 150 hours of flight time of Appendix 3, Part K, point (3)(a).

The amount of credited hours should be decided by the ATO where the applicant takes the training course on the basis of a pre-entry flight test, but in any case, should have been completed only in one aircraft category other than helicopter, and not be a combination of hours in more than two different aircraft categories.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

(b) The 250 hours of instruction, which also covers the Area 100 KSA may include in suitable proportions:

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

Approved distance-learning (correspondence) courses may also be offered as part of the course. The minimum amount of classroom instruction, as required by ORA.ATO.305, may include all of the above except item (b)(9).

FLYING TRAINING

(c) The flying instruction comprises the following items. The flight time allocated to each exercise is at the discretion of the FI, provided that at least 5 hours flight time is allocated to cross-country flying.

VISUAL INSTRUCTION

(d) Within the total of dual flight instruction time, the applicant may have completed during the visual phase up to 5 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2, 3 or FNPT II, III.

(1) pre-flight operations: mass and balance calculations, helicopter inspection and servicing;

(2) level flight speed changes, climbing, descending, turns, basic autorotations, use of checklist, collision avoidance and checking procedures;

(3) take-offs and landings, traffic pattern, approach, simulated engine failures in the traffic pattern. Sideways and backwards flight and spot turns in the hover;

(4) recovery from incipient vortex ring condition;

(5) advanced auto-rotations covering the speed range from low speed to maximum range and manoeuvre in auto-rotations (180°, 360° and '̀S' turns) and simulated engine-off landings;

(6) selection of emergency landing areas, auto-rotations following simulated emergencies to given areas and steep turns at 30° and 45° bank;

(7) manoeuvres at low level and quick-stops;

(8) landings, take-offs and transitions to and from the hover when heading out of wind;

(9) landings and take-offs from sloping or uneven ground;

(10) landings and take-offs with limited power;

(11) low level operations into and out of confined landing sites;

(12) cross-country flying using dead reckoning and radio navigation aids, flight planning by the applicant, filing of ATC flight plan, evaluation of weather briefing documentation, NOTAM, etc., R/T procedures and phraseology, positioning by radio navigation aids; operation to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS procedures for VFR flights, simulated radio communication failure, weather deterioration, diversion procedures; location of an off airfield landing site and simulated approach.

BASIC INSTRUMENT INSTRUCTION

(e) A maximum of 5 hours of the following exercises may be performed in an FFS or FTD or FNPT. Flight training should be carried out in VMC using a suitable means of simulating IMC for the student.

(1) Exercise 1:

Instrument flying without external visual cues. Level flight performing speed changes, maintaining flight altitude (level, heading) turns in level flight at rate 1 and 30° bank, left and right; roll-out on predetermined headings;

(2) Exercise 2:

repetition of exercise 1; additionally climbing and descending, maintaining heading and speed, transition to horizontal flight; climbing and descending turns;

(3) Exercise 3:

 repetition of exercise 1; and recovery from unusual attitudes;

(4) Exercise 4:

radio navigation;

(5) Exercise 5:

repetition of exercise 1; and turns using standby magnetic compass and standby artificial horizon (if fitted).

BASIC UPRT FOR AEROPLANE ATP INTEGRATED, CPL/IR INTEGRATED, CPL INTEGRATED AND CPL MODULAR COURSES AS WELL AS MPL COURSE PHASES 1 TO 3

(a) BASIC UPRT ELEMENTS AND COMPONENTS

In order for student pilots to develop the competencies to prevent and recover from aeroplane upsets, the basic UPRT elements and respective components in the following Table 1 should be integrated into the flying training modules and phases, such that all the elements are covered.

Table 1: Basic UPRT elements and components

Pre-flight briefing

Flying training

A.

Aerodynamics

1.

General aerodynamic characteristics

2.

Aeroplane certification and limitations

4.

Aerodynamics (high and low altitude)

 

5.

Aeroplane performance (high and low altitude)

 

6.

AoA and stall awareness

7.

Aeroplane stability

8.

Control surface fundamentals

9.

Use of trim

10.

Icing and contamination effects

11.

Propeller slipstream (as applicable)

B.

Causes of and contributing factors to upsets

1.

Environmental

 

2.

Pilot-induced

 

3.

Mechanical (aeroplane systems)

 

C.

Safety review of accidents and incidents relating to aeroplane upsets

1.

Safety review of accidents and incidents relating to aeroplane upsets

 

D.

G-load awareness and management

1.

Positive/negative/increasing/decreasing G-loads

2.

Lateral G awareness (sideslip)

3.

G-load management

E.

Energy management

1.

Kinetic energy vs potential energy vs chemical energy (power)

F.

Flight path management

1.

Relationship between pitch, power and performance

2.

Performance and effects of differing power plants

3.

Manual and automation inputs for guidance and control (if applicable)

4.

Class-specific characteristics of flight path management

5.

Management of go-arounds from various stages during the approach

6.

Automation management (if applicable)

7.

Proper use of rudder

G.

Recognition

1.

Class-specific examples of physiological, visual and instrument clues during developing and developed upset

2.

Pitch/power/roll/yaw

3.

Effective scanning (effective monitoring)

4.

Stall protection systems and cues

5.

Criteria for identifying stalls and upsets

H.

System malfunction

(including immediate handling and subsequent operational considerations, as applicable)

1.

Flight control defects

2.

Engine failure (partial or full)

3.

Instrument failures

4.

Loss of reliable airspeed (training elements as per point (lb) of AMC2 ORA.ATO.12515 Please refer to ED Decision 2012/007/R.).

5.

Automation failures

6.

Stall protection system failures, including icing alerting systems

(b) MANOEUVRE-BASED UPRT EXERCISES

The following Table 2 contains manoeuvre-based basic UPRT exercises.

Table 2: Manoeuvre-based basic UPRT exercises

Pre-flight briefing

Flying training

A.

Timely and appropriate intervention

1.

Arresting divergence of the aeroplane from intended flight path

2.

Preventing flight at airspeeds inappropriate for the (intended flight) condition

3.

Avoiding spins

B.

Flight path management

1.

Steep turns

2.

Slow flight (including flight at critically low airspeed)

3.

High airspeed (including flight at relatively high airspeed)

C.

Application of OEM recommendations (if applicable) during developing upsets

1.

Nose-high attitudes at various bank angles

2.

Nose-low attitudes at various bank angles (including spiral dive)

D.

Stall events in the following configurations

1.

Take-off configuration

2.

Clean configuration

3.

Landing configuration

(c) INTEGRATION OF TEM, PILOT CORE COMPETENCIES, AND HUMAN FACTORS

Threat and Error Management (TEM), pilot competencies and human factors, as shown in the following Table 3 below, should be integrated into the flying training modules and phases as appropriate.

Table 3: Core elements and components of TEM, pilot competencies and human factors

Pre-flight briefing

Flying training

A.

TEM

1.

TEM framework

2.

Recognition of threats and errors

3.

Management of threats and errors

4.

Countermeasures against threats and errors to prevent undesired aircraft states, including early intervention and, when necessary to prevent upsets, timely application of countermeasures to manage undesired aircraft states

B.

Pilot Competencies, including CRM

1.

All elements listed in Table 1 of GM2 FCL.735.A

C.

Human factors

1.

Instrument interpretation, active monitoring, checking

2.

Distraction, inattention, fixation, fatigue

3.

Human information processing, cognitive effects

4.

Perceptual illusions (visual or physiological) and spatial disorientation, effects of G-loads

5.

Stress, startle and surprise effect

6.

Intuitive and counter-intuitive behaviour

GM1 to Appendix 3; Appendix 5

ED Decision 2019/005/R

BASIC UPRT EXERCISES

(a) GENERAL

The training objective of the basic UPRT exercises is for the student to achieve competence in applying prevention and recovery techniques. In order to meet the training objectives, some UPRT exercises will involve operation at altitudes, speeds and g-loadings that are not required for other parts of the training course. When designing training courses, ATOs should ensure that the aircraft used for these exercises will allow the training objectives to be achieved while maintaining a margin of safety to aircraft limitations in accordance with the training envelope, as determined by the ATO (see GM1 ORA.ATO.125 point (f)).

(b) UPRT WITH REFERENCE TO INSTRUMENTS

Basic UPRT exercises completed by reference to instruments (i.e. in simulated instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)) should involve only moderate excursions from the speeds and attitudes used in normal instrument flight. Exercises conducted in IMC should not be planned to involve ‘unusual attitudes’.

(c) INSTRUCTORS DELIVERING BASIC UPRT

Instructors conducting basic UPRT training during the CPL or ATP course do not require any additional qualifications. It is the responsibility of the ATO to ensure that instructors are competent to deliver effective training on all parts of the course and also that they are competent to recover the aircraft in the event that a student erroneously conducts any UPRT exercise.

(d) APPLICATION OF OEM RECOMMENDATIONS DURING DEVELOPING UPSETS

Stall recovery training exercises as well as nose-high and nose-low prevention training exercises use the recovery strategies recommended by the OEMs contained in Tables 1, 2 and 3 below.

Note: As OEM procedures always take precedence over the general strategies as recommended by the OEMs, ATOs should consult the OEM on whether any approved specific procedures are available prior to using the templates.

Refer to revision 3 of the Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Aid (AUPRTA) for a detailed explanation and rationale of nose-high and nose-low recovery strategies as recommended by the OEMs.

Table 1: Stall event recovery template

Pilot Flying (PF)

Immediately do the following at first indication of a stall (aerodynamic buffeting, reduced roll stability and aileron effectiveness, visual or aural cues and warnings, reduced elevator (pitch) authority, inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent, stick shaker activation (if installed)) during any flight phases except at lift-off.

 

1.

AUTOPILOT — DISCONNECT (IF APPLICABLE)

(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when the autopilot is disconnected)

 

2.

AUTOTHROTTLE — OFF (IF APPLICABLE)

3.

(a) NOSE-DOWN PITCH CONTROL

apply until stall warning is eliminated

(b) NOSE-DOWN PITCH TRIM (as needed)

(Reduce the AoA whilst accepting the resulting altitude loss.)

4.

BANK — WINGS LEVEL

5.

POWER — ADJUST (as needed)

(Thrust reduction for aeroplanes with underwing-mounted engines may be needed)

6.

SPEEDBRAKES/SPOILERS — RETRACT

7.

When airspeed is sufficiently increasing — RECOVER to level flight

(Avoid the secondary

Table 2: Nose-high recovery strategy template

Recognise and confirm the developing situation by announcing ‘nose high’

Pilot Flying (PF)

1.

AUTOPILOT — DISCONNECT (if applicable)

(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when the autopilot is disconnected)

 

2.

AUTOTHROTTLE — OFF (if applicable)

3.

APPLY as much nose-down control input as required to obtain a nose-down pitch rate

4.

POWER — ADJUST (if required)

5.

ROLL — ADJUST (if required)

(Avoid exceeding 60-degree bank)

6.

When airspeed is sufficiently increasing — RECOVER to level flight

(Avoid the secondary stall due to premature recovery or excessive G-loading)

NOTE:

(1)  Recovery to level flight may require use of pitch trim.

(2)  WARNING: Excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate the upset situation or may result in high structural loads.

Table 3: Nose-low recovery strategy template

Recognise and confirm the developing situation by announcing ‘nose low’

(If the autopilot or autothrottle is responding correctly, it may not be appropriate to decrease the level of automation while assessing if the divergence is being stopped)

Pilot Flying (PF)

1.

AUTOPILOT — DISCONNECT (if applicable)

(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when the autopilot is disconnected)

 

2.

AUTOTHROTTLE — OFF (if applicable)

3.

RECOVERY from stall (if required)

4.

ROLL in the shortest direction to wings level

(It may be necessary to reduce the G-loading by applying forward control pressure to improve roll effectiveness)

5.

POWER and DRAG — ADJUST (if required)

6.

RECOVER to level flight

(Avoid the secondary stall due to premature recovery or excessive G-loading)

NOTE:

(1)  Recovery to level flight may require use of pitch trim.

(2)  WARNING: Excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate the upset situation or may result in high structural loads.

ADDITIONAL GUIDANCE

(e) Specific guidance on UPRT is available in the latest revision of ICAO Doc 10011 ‘Manual on Aeroplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training’.

OVERVIEW OF FSTD TRAINING CREDITS FOR DUAL INSTRUCTION IN HELICOPTER FLYING TRAINING COURSES

 

 

ATPL(H)/IR integrated

 

FSTD credits

 

Dual

Solo

SPIC

Total

FFS; FTD; FNPT

Visual, including ME T/R training

75 hrs

15 hrs

40 hrs

130 hrs

30 hrs FFS C/D level or

25 hrs FTD 2, 3 or

20 hrs FNPT II/III

Basic instrument

10 hrs

-

-

10 hrs

20 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 or FNPT II/III or

10 hrs in at least an FNPT I

Instrument rating training

40 hrs

-

 

40 hrs

MCC

15 hrs

-

-

15 hrs

15 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 (MCC) or FNPT II/III (MCC)

Total

140 hrs

55 hrs

195 hrs

Note 2

 

 

ATPL(H)/VFR integrated

 

 

 

Dual

Solo

SPIC

Total

FFS; FTD; FNPT

Visual including ME T/R training

75 hrs

15 hrs

40 hrs

130 hrs

30 hrs FFS C/D level or

25 hrs FTD 2, 3 or 

20 hrs FNPT II/III

Basic instrument

10 hrs

-

-

10 hrs

5 hrs in at least an FNPT I

MCC / VFR

10 hrs

-

-

10 hrs

10 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 (MCC) or FNPT II/III (MCC)

Total

95 hrs

55 hrs

150 hrs

Note 2

 

 

CPL(H)/IR integrated

 

 

 

Dual

Solo

SPIC

Total

FFS; FTD; FNPT

Visual including ME T/R training

75 hrs

 

15 hrs

 

40hrs

 

130 hrs

 

30 hrs FFS C/D level or

25 hrs FTD 2, 3 or 

20 hrs FNPT II/III

Basic instrument

10 hrs

-

-

 10 hrs

20 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 or FNPT II/III or

10 hrs in at least an FNPT I

Instrument rating training

40 hrs

-

 

 

 40 hrs

Total

125 hrs

55 hrs

 

180 hrs

Note 2

 

 

CPL(H) Integrated

 

 

 

 

Dual

Solo

SPIC

Total

FFS; FTD; FNPT

Visual

75 hrs

15 hrs

35 hrs

125 hrs

30 hrs FFS C/D level or

25 hrs FTD 2, 3 or 

20 hrs FNPT II/III

Basic instrument

10 hrs

-

-

10 hrs

5 hrs in at least an FNPT I

Total

85 hrs

50 hrs

 

135 hrs

Note 2

 

 

CPL(H) modular

 

 

 

 

Dual

Solo

SPIC

Total

FFS; FTD; FNPT

Visual

20 hrs

-

-

20 hrs

5 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 or FNPT II/III

Basic instrument

10 hrs

-

-

10 hrs

5 hrs in at least an FNPT I

Total 

30 hrs

-

-

30 hrs 

Note 2

 

 

IR(H) modular

 

 

 

 

Dual

Solo

SPIC

Total

FFS; FTD; FNPT

SE

50 hrs

-

-

50 hrs

35 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 or FNPT II/III 

or 

20 hrs FNPT I (H) or

(A)

ME

55 hrs

-

-

55 hrs

40 hrs FFS; FTD 2, 3 FNPT II/III or 

20 hrs FNPT I (H) or

(A)

 

 

MCC(H) 

 

 

 

 

Dual

Solo

SPIC

Total

FFS; FTD; FNPT

MCC / IR

20 hrs

-

-

20 hrs

20 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 (MCC) or

FNPT II/III (MCC) 

MCC / VFR

15 hrs

-

-

15 hrs

15 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 (MCC) or FNPT II/III (MCC)

MCC / IR for

MCC/VFR holders

 5 hrs

-

-

 5 hrs

5 hrs FFS or 

FTD 2, 3 (MCC) or

FNPT II/III (MCC) 

Note 1: In this matrix, FSTD credits refer to helicopter FSTDs, if not mentioned otherwise. 

Note 2: Total credits for the FSTDs used in the course are not provided in the tables as the FSTDs may be used in various combinations. The FSTD credits provided in the tables for the separate phases of the course are the maximum FSTD credits available for each phase.

GM1 to Appendix 3 Example of a grading system for practical flight training during ATP, CPL and MPL courses grading system

ED Decision 2019/005/R

An ATPL/CPL/MPL grading system may be developed by using the grading system in GM3 FCL.735.A.

Appendix 4 – Skill test for the issue of a CPL

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

A. General

1. An applicant for a skill test for the CPL shall have received instruction on the same class or type of aircraft to be used in the test.

2. An applicant shall pass all the relevant sections of the skill test. If any item in a section is failed, that section is failed. Failure in more than one section will require the applicant to take the entire test again. An applicant failing only in one section shall only repeat the failed section. Failure in any section of the retest, including those sections that have been passed on a previous attempt, will require the applicant to take the entire test again. All relevant sections of the skill test shall be completed within 6 months. Failure to achieve a pass in all relevant sections of the test in two attempts will require further training.

3. Further training may be required following any failed skill test. There is no limit to the number of skill tests that may be attempted.

CONDUCT OF THE TEST

4. Should the applicant choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the Flight Examiner (FE), the applicant shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the FE, only those sections not completed shall be tested in a further flight.

5. At the discretion of the FE, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by the applicant. The FE may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicant’s demonstration of flying skills requires a complete re-test.

6. An applicant shall be required to fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC functions can be performed and to carry out the test as if no other crew member is present. Responsibility for the flight shall be allocated in accordance with national regulations.

7. An applicant shall indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out, including the identification of radio facilities. Checks shall be completed in accordance with the checklist for the aircraft on which the test is being taken. During pre-flight preparation for the test, the applicant is required to determine power settings and speeds. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing shall be calculated by the applicant in compliance with the operations manual or flight manual for the aircraft used.

8. The FE shall take no part in the operation of the aircraft except where intervention is necessary in the interests of safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic.

B. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL Aeroplanes

1. The aeroplane used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training aeroplanes, and shall be certificated for the carriage of at least four persons, have a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

2. The route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE and the destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The applicant shall be responsible for the flight planning and shall ensure that all equipment and documentation for the execution of the flight are on board. The duration of the flight shall be at least 90 minutes.

3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:

(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations,

(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy,

(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and

(e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES

4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the aeroplane used.

             Height

              normal flight    ±100 feet

             with simulated engine failure  ±150 feet

             Tracking on radio aids   ±5°

             Heading

              normal flight    ±10°

              with simulated engine failure  ±15°

             Speed

              take-off and approach   ±5 knots

             all other flight regimes   ±10 knots

CONTENT OF THE TEST

5. Items in section 2 (c) and (e)(iv), and the whole of sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an FNPT II or an FFS.

Use of the aeroplane checklists, airmanship, control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, anti-icing/de-icing procedures and principles of threat and error management apply in all sections.

SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE

a

Pre-flight, including:

Flight planning, Documentation, Mass and balance determination, Weather brief, NOTAMS

b

Aeroplane inspection and servicing

c

Taxiing and take-off

d

Performance considerations and trim

e

Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations

f

Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout)

g

ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures

SECTION 2 GENERAL AIRWORK

a

Control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent, lookout

b

Flight at critically low airspeeds including recognition of and recovery from incipient and full stalls

c

Turns, including turns in landing configuration. Steep turns 45°

d

Flight at critically high airspeeds, including recognition of and recovery from spiral dives

e

Flight by reference solely to instruments, including:

(i) level flight, cruise configuration, control of heading, altitude and airspeed

(ii) climbing and descending turns with 10°–30° bank

(iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes

(iv) limited panel instruments

f

ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures

SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES

a

Control of aeroplane by external visual reference, including cruise configuration
Range/Endurance considerations

b

Orientation, map reading

c

Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout

d

Altimeter setting. ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures

e

Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re-establishment of correct tracking

f

Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning

g

Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation of diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight)

SECTION 4 — APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES

a

Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout

b

ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

c

Go-around action from low height

d

Normal landing, crosswind landing (if suitable conditions)

e

Short field landing

f

Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only)

g

Landing without use of flaps

h

Post flight actions

SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES

This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4

a

Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill

b

Equipment malfunctions

including alternative landing gear extension, electrical and brake failure

c

Forced landing (simulated)

d

ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

e

Oral questions

SECTION 6 — SIMULATED ASYMMETRIC FLIGHT AND RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS

This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5

a

Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS)

b

Asymmetric approach and go-around

c

Asymmetric approach and full stop landing

d

Engine shutdown and restart

e

ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures, Airmanship

f

As determined by the FE — any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if applicable:

(i) aeroplane systems including handling of autopilot

(ii) operation of pressurisation system

(iii) use of de-icing and anti-icing system

g

Oral questions

C. Content of the skill test for the issue of the CPL – Helicopters

1. The helicopter used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training helicopters.

2. The area and route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE and all low level and hover work shall be at an approved aerodrome/site. Routes used for section 3 may end at the aerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome and one destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The skill test may be conducted in 2 flights. The total duration of the flight(s) shall be at least 90 minutes.

3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:

(a) operate the helicopter within its limitations;

(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and

(e) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES

4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the helicopter used.

             Height

              normal flight    ±100 feet

              simulated major emergency  ±150 feet

             Tracking on radio aids   ±10°

             Heading

              normal flight    ±10°

              simulated major emergency  ±15°

             Speed

              take-off and approach multi-engine ±5 knots

              all other flight regimes   ±10 knots

             Ground drift

              T.O. hover I.G.E.    ±3 feet

              landing no sideways or backwards movement

CONTENT OF THE TEST

5. Items in section 4 may be performed in a helicopter FNPT or a helicopter FFS. Use of helicopter checklists, airmanship, control of helicopter by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures, and principles of threat and error management apply in all sections.

SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT/POST-FLIGHT CHECKS AND PROCEDURES

a

Helicopter knowledge (e.g. technical log, fuel, mass and balance, performance), flight planning, documentation, NOTAMS, weather

b

Pre-flight inspection/action, location of parts and purpose

c

Cockpit inspection, starting procedure

d

Communication and navigation equipment checks, selecting and setting frequencies

e

Pre-take-off procedure, R/T procedure, ATC liaison-compliance

f

Parking, shutdown and post-flight procedure

SECTION 2 — Hover manoeuvres, advanced handling and confined areas

a

Take-off and landing (lift-off and touchdown)

b

Taxi, hover taxi

c

Stationary hover with head/cross/tail wind

d

Stationary hover turns, 360° left and right (spot turns)

e

Forward, sideways and backwards hover manoeuvring

f

Simulated engine failure from the hover

g

Quick stops into and downwind

h

Sloping ground/unprepared sites landings and take-offs

i

Take-offs (various profiles)

j

Crosswind, downwind take-off (if practicable)

k

Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated)

l

Approaches (various profiles)

m

Limited power take-off and landing

n

Autorotations (FE to select two items from — Basic, range, low speed, and 360° turns)

o

Autorotative landing

p

Practice forced landing with power recovery

q

Power checks, reconnaissance technique, approach and departure technique

SECTION 3 — NAVIGATION — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES

a

Navigation and orientation at various altitudes/heights, map reading

b

Altitude/height, speed, heading control, observation of airspace, altimeter setting

c

Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, endurance, ETA, assessment of track error and re-establishment of correct track, instrument monitoring

d

Observation of weather conditions, diversion planning

e

Tracking, positioning (NDB and/or VOR), identification of facilities

f

ATC liaison and observance of regulations, etc.

SECTION 4 — FLIGHT PROCEDURES AND MANOEUVRES BY SOLE REFERENCE TO INSTRUMENTS

a

Level flight, control of heading, altitude/height and speed

b

Rate 1 level turns onto specified headings, 180°to 360°left and right

c

Climbing and descending, including turns at rate 1 onto specified headings

d

Recovery from unusual attitudes

e

Turns with 30° bank, turning up to 90° left and right

SECTION 5 — Abnormal and Emergency procedures
(simulated where appropriate)

Note (1): Where the test is conducted on a multi-engine helicopter a simulated engine failure drill, including a single-engine approach and landing, shall be included in the test.

Note (2): The FE shall select 4 items from the following:

a

Engine malfunctions, including governor failure, carburettor/engine icing, oil system, as appropriate

b

Fuel system malfunction

c

Electrical system malfunction

d

Hydraulic system malfunction, including approach and landing without hydraulics, as applicable

e

Main rotor and/or anti-torque system malfunction (FFS or discussion only)

f

Fire drills, including smoke control and removal, as applicable

g

Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in appropriate flight manual, including for multi-engine helicopters:

 Simulated engine failure at take-off:

 rejected take-off at or before TDP or safe forced landing at or before DPATO, shortly after TDP or DPATO.

 Landing with simulated engine failure:

 landing or go-around following engine failure before LDP or DPBL,

 following engine failure after LDP or safe forced landing after DPBL.

D. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL — Airships

1. The airship used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training airships.

2. The area and route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE. Routes used for section 3 may end at the aerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome and one destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The skill test may be conducted in 2 flights. The total duration of the flight(s) shall be at least 60 minutes.

3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:

(a) operate the airship within its limitations;

(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and

(e) maintain control of the airship at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES

4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the airship used.

             Height

             normal flight    ±100 feet

             simulated major emergency  ±150 feet

             Tracking on radio aids   ±10°

             Heading

             normal flight    ±10°

             simulated major emergency  ±15°

CONTENT OF THE TEST

5. Items in sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an Airship FNPT or an airship FFS. Use of airship checklists, airmanship, control of airship by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures, and principles of threat and error management apply in all sections.

SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE

a

Pre-flight, including:

Flight planning, Documentation, Mass and Balance determination, Weather brief, NOTAMS

b

Airship inspection and servicing

c

Off-mast procedure, ground manoeuvring and take-off

d

Performance considerations and trim

e

Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations

f

Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout)

g

ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures

SECTION 2 — GENERAL AIRWORK

a

Control of the airship by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent, lookout

b

Flight at pressure height

c

Turns

d

Steep descents and climbs

e

Flight by reference solely to instruments, including:

(i) level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed

(ii) climbing and descending turns

(iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes

(iv) limited panel instruments

f

ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures

SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES

a

Control of airship by external visual reference, Range/Endurance considerations

b

Orientation, map reading

c

Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout

d

Altimeter setting, ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures

e

Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re-establishment of correct tracking

f

Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning

g

Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation of diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight)

SECTION 4 — APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES

a

Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout

b

ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures

c

Go-around action from low height

d

Normal landing

e

Short field landing

f

Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only)

g

Landing without use of flaps

h

Post-flight actions

SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES

This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4

a

Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill

b

Equipment malfunctions

c

Forced landing (simulated)

d

ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures

e

Oral questions

SECTION 6 — RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS

This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5

a

Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS)

b

Approach and go-around with failed engine(s)

c

Approach and full stop landing with failed engine(s)

d

Malfunctions in the envelope pressure system

e

ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures, Airmanship

f

As determined by the FE – any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if applicable:

(i) airship systems

(ii) operation of envelope pressure system

g

Oral questions

Appendix 5Integrated MPL training course

Regulation (EU) 2018/1974

GENERAL

1. The aim of the MPL integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to enable them to operate as co-pilot of a multi-engine multi-pilot turbine-powered air transport aeroplane under VFR and IFR and to obtain an MPL.

2. Approval for an MPL training course shall only be given to an ATO that is part of a commercial air transport operator certificated in accordance with Part-ORO or having a specific arrangement with such an operator.

3. An applicant wishing to undertake an MPL integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training at an ATO. The training shall be competency based and conducted in a multi-crew operational environment.

4. Only ab-initio applicants shall be admitted to the course.

5. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level;

(b) visual and instrument flying training;

(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes; and

(d) type rating training.

6. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire MPL course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirements are met.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

7. An approved MPL theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction for the ATPL(A) knowledge level, as well as the hours required for:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction for the relevant type rating, in accordance with Subpart H; and

(b) UPRT theoretical knowledge instruction in accordance with FCL.745.A.

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 240 hours, composed of hours as PF and PM, in actual and simulated flight, and covering the following four phases of training:

(a) Phase 1 — Core flying skills

Specific basic single-pilot training in an aeroplane

(b) Phase 2 — Basic

Introduction of multi-crew operations and instrument flight

(c) Phase 3 — Intermediate

Application of multi-crew operations to a multi-engine turbine aeroplane certified as a high-performance aeroplane in accordance with Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012

(d) Phase 4 — Advanced

Type rating training within an airline-oriented environment.

MCC requirements shall be incorporated into the relevant phases above.

Training in asymmetric flight shall be given either in an aeroplane or an FFS.

8a. Flight experience in actual flight shall include:

(a) all the experience requirements of Subpart H;

(b) UPRT flight instruction in accordance with FCL.745.A;

(c) aeroplane UPRT exercises related to the specificities of the relevant type in accordance with FCL.725.A(c);

(d) night flying;

(e) flight solely by reference to instruments; and

(f) the experience required to achieve the relevant airmanship.

9. Each phase of training in the flight instruction syllabus shall be composed of both instruction in the underpinning knowledge and in practical training segments.

10. The training course shall include a continuous evaluation process of the training syllabus and a continuous assessment of the students following the syllabus. Evaluation shall ensure that:

(a) the competencies and related assessment are relevant to the task of a co-pilot of a multi-pilot aeroplane; and

(b) the students acquire the necessary competencies in a progressive and satisfactory manner.

11. The training course shall include at least 12 take-offs and landings to ensure competency. Those take-offs and landings may be reduced to at least six, provided that prior to delivering the training, the ATO and the operator ensure that:

(a) a procedure is in place to assess the required level of competency of the student pilot; and

(b) a process is in place to ensure that corrective action is taken if in-training evaluation indicates the need to do so.

Those take-offs and landings shall be performed under the supervision of an instructor in an aeroplane for which the type rating shall be issued.

ASSESSMENT LEVEL

12. The applicant for the MPL shall have demonstrated performance in all 9 competency units specified in paragraph 13 below, at the advanced level of competency required to operate and interact as a co-pilot in a turbine-powered multi-pilot aeroplane, under visual and instrument conditions. Assessment shall confirm that control of the aeroplane or situation is maintained at all times, to ensure the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre. The applicant shall consistently demonstrate the knowledge, skills and attitudes required for the safe operation of the applicable aeroplane type, in accordance with the MPL performance criteria.

COMPETENCY UNITS

13. The applicant shall demonstrate competency in the following 9 competency units:

(1) apply human performance principles, including principles of threat and error management;

(2) perform aeroplane ground operations;

(3) perform take-off;

(4) perform climb;

(5) perform cruise;

(6) perform descent;

(7) perform approach;

(8) perform landing; and

(9) perform after landing and aeroplane post-flight operations.

SIMULATED FLIGHT

14. Minimum requirements for FSTDs:

(a) Phase 1 — Core flying skills

E-training and part tasking devices approved by the competent authority that have the following characteristics:

             involve accessories beyond those normally associated with desktop computers, such as functional replicas of a throttle quadrant, a side-stick controller, or an FMS keypad; and

             involve psychomotor activity with appropriate application of force and timing of responses.

(b) Phase 2 — Basic

An FNPT II MCC that represents a generic multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane.

(c) Phase 3 — Intermediate

An FSTD that represents a multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot and qualified to an equivalent standard to level B, additionally including:

             a daylight/twilight/night visual system continuous cross-cockpit minimum collimated visual field of view providing each pilot with 180° horizontal and 40° vertical field of view, and

             ATC environment simulation.

(d) Phase 4 — Advanced

An FFS which is fully equivalent to level D or level C with an enhanced daylight visual system, including ATC environment simulation.

GENERAL

(a) In broad terms, the MPL holder is expected to be able to complete the airline operators’ conversion course with a high probability of success and within the time frame normally allowed for this phase. The standard is equivalent to what is currently expected from graduates of the ATP(A) integrated course who have completed type rating training.

(b) The general approach is to use the existing ATP(A) integrated training course as a reference and to implement progressively the MPL integrated training course and specifically the transfer from actual flight to simulated flight.

(c) This transfer should be organised in a way that is similar to the approach used for ETOPS. Successive evolutions of the training syllabus introduce progressively a higher level of simulated flight and a reduction of actual flight. Change from one version to the next should only take place after enough experience has been gained and once its results, including those of airline operator conversion courses, have been analysed and taken into account.

MPL TRAINING SCHEME

(d) The specific arrangement, pursuant to ORA.GEN.205, between an approved training organisation (ATO) and an operator for the multi-pilot licence (MPL) training should cover at least the following points:

(1) pre-entry requirements (including screening and selection);

(2) provision of the relevant documentation (operations manuals (OMs) and training manuals);

(3) design of the training programme;

(4) content of the operator conversion course;

(5) training effectiveness (e.g. continuous monitoring system, progress checks, etc.);

(6) provision of base training;

(7) graduate performance data feedback from the operator to the ATO;

(8) course evaluation and improvement; and

(9) alignment of the grading and assessment criteria.

The ATO and operator may use their OMs and training manuals to identify additional areas to be covered by the specific arrangement.

The following scheme should be applied:

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION

(e) The 750 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable proportions:

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

COMPETENCY UNITS, COMPETENCY ELEMENTS AND PERFORMANCE CRITERIA

(f) Apply human performance principles, including principles of threat and error management:

(1) cooperation;

(2) leadership and managerial skills;

(3) situation awareness;

(4) decision making.

These behaviour categories are intended to help in the effective utilisation of all available resources to achieve safe and efficient operations.

These behaviour categories may be adapted and extended to incorporate issues like communication and use of automation if it is considered to be relevant to the development of the curriculum.

(g) Perform Aircraft Ground and Pre-Flight Operations

List of competency elements and performance criteria:

(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including recognising and managing potential threats and errors;

Duty Observation and assessment

Satisfactory (S)

Unsatisfactory (U)

(2) perform dispatch duties:          (S) or (U)

(i) verifies technical condition of the a/c, including adequate use of MEL;                                                                                                                                              PF/PNF

(ii) checks technical bulletins and notices;   PF/PNF

(iii) determines operational environment and pertinent weather;                                                                                                                                               PF/PNF

(iv) determines impact of weather on aircraft performance; PF/PNF

(v) applies flight planning and load procedures;   PF/PNF

(vi) determines fuel requirement;     PF/PNF

(vii) files an ATS flight plan (if required)    PF/PNF

(3) provide flight crew and cabin crew briefings;      (S) or (U)

(i) briefed flight crew in all relevant matters;   PF

(ii) briefed cabin crew in all relevant matters.   PF

(4) perform pre-flight checks and cockpit preparation:     (S) or (U)

(i) ensures the airworthiness of the aircraft;   PF

(ii) performs the cockpit preparation and briefings;  PF/PNF

(iii) performs FMS initialisation, data insertion and confirmation;                                                                                                                                               PF/PNF

(iv) optimises and checks take-off performance and take-off data calculation.                                                                                                                                              PF/PNF

(5) perform engine start:         (S) or (U)

(i) asks for, receives acknowledges and checks ATC clearance;                                                                                                                                               PNF

(ii) performs engine start procedure;    PF/PNF

(iii) uses standard communication procedures with ground crew and ATC.                                                                                                                                              PF/PNF

(6) perform taxi out:          (S) or (U)

(i) receives, checks and adheres to taxi clearance;   PNF

(ii) taxis the aircraft, including use of exterior lighting;  PF

(iii) complies to taxi clearance;     PF/PNF

(iv) maintains look-out for conflicting traffic and obstacles;  PF/PNF

(v) operates thrust, brakes and steering;    PF

(vi) conducts relevant briefings;     PF

(vii) uses standard communication procedures with crew and ATC;                                                                                                                                               PNF

(viii) completes standard operating procedures and checklists;                                                                                                                                                PF/PNF

(ix) updates and confirms FMS data;    PF/PNF

(x) manages changes in performance and departure route; PF/PNF

(xi) completes de or anti-ice procedures.    PF/PNF

(7) manage abnormal and emergency situations:     (S) or (U)

(i) identifies the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(ii) interprets the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF

(8) communicate with cabin crew, passengers and company:    (S) or (U)

(i) communicates relevant information with cabin crew; PF

(ii) communicates relevant information with company; PF/PNF

(iii) makes passenger announcements when appropriate. PF/PNF

(h) Perform take-off

List of competency elements and performance criteria:

(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of including recognising flight, and managing potential

(2) perform pre threats and errors. -take-off and predeparture preparation: (S) or (U)

(i) checks and acknowledges line up clearance;   PF/PNF

(ii) checks correct runway selection;    PF/PNF

(iii) confirms validity of performance data;   PF/PNF

(iv) checks approach sector and runway are clear;  PF/PNF

(v) confirms all checklists and take-off preparations completed;                                                                                                                                               PF/PNF

(vi) lines up the aircraft on centreline without losing distance;                                                                                                                                               PF

(vii) checks weather on departure sector;    PF/PNF

(viii) checks runway status and wind.    PF/PNF

(3) perform take-off roll:         (S) or (U)

(i) applies take-off thrust;      PF

(ii) checks engine parameters;     PNF

(iii) checks air speed indicators;     PF/PNF

(iv) stays on runway centreline.     PF

(4) perform transition to instrument flight rules:     (S) or (U)

(i) applies v1 procedures;      PF/PNF

(ii) rotates at vr to initial pitch attitude;    PF

(iii) establishes initial wings level attitude;    PF

(iv) retracts landing gear;      PNF

(v) maintains climb out speed.     PF

(5) perform initial climb to flap retraction altitude:     (S) or (U)

(i) sets climb power;       PF

(ii) adjusts attitude for acceleration;    PF

(iii) selects flaps according flap speed schedule;   PF/PNF

(iv) observes speed restrictions;     PF

(v) completes relevant checklists.     PF/PNF

(6) perform rejected take-off:         (S) or (U)

(i) recognises the requirement to abort the take-off;   PF

(ii) applies the rejected take-off procedure;    PF

(iii) assesses the need to evacuate the aircraft.   PF/PNF

(7) perform navigation:          (S) or (U)

(i) complies to departure clearance;    PF

(ii) complies with published departure procedures, for example speeds;                                                                                                                                              PF

(iii) monitors navigation accuracy;      PF/PNF

(iv) communicates and coordinates with ATC.   PNF

(8) manage abnormal and emergency situations:     (S) or (U)

(i) identifies the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(ii) interprets the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF

(i) Perform climb

List of competency elements and performance criteria:

(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including recognising and managing potential threats and errors;

(2) perform SID or en-route navigation:       (S) or (U)

(i) complies with departure clearance and procedures; PF

(ii) demonstrates terrain awareness;    PF/PNF

(iii) monitors navigation accuracy;     PF/PNF

(iv) adjusts flight to weather and traffic conditions;  PF

(v) communicates and coordinates with ATC;   PNF

(vi) observes minimum altitudes;     PF/PNF

(vii) selects appropriate level of automation;   PF

(viii) complies with altimeter setting procedures.   PF/PNF

(3) complete climb procedures and checklists:      (S) or (U)

(i) performs the after take-off items;    PF/PNF

(ii) confirms and checks according checklists.   PF/PNF

(4) modify climb speeds, rate of climb and cruise altitude:    (S) or (U)

(i) recognises the need to change speed, Rate of climb or cruise altitude;                                                                                                                                              PF

(ii) selects and maintains the appropriate climb speed or rate of climb;                                                                                                                                              PF

(iii) selects optimum cruise flight level.    PF/PNF

(5) perform systems operations and procedures:     (S) or (U)

(i) monitors operation of all systems;    PF/PNF

(ii) operates systems as required.     PF/PNF

6) manage abnormal and emergency situations:     (S) or (U)

(i) identifies the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(ii) interprets the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF

(7) communicate with cabin crew, passengers and company:    (S) or (U)

(i) communicates relevant information with cabin crew; PF

(ii) communicates relevant information with company; PF/PNF

(iii) makes passenger announcements when appropriate.  PF

(j) Perform cruise

List of competency elements and performance criteria.

(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including recognising and managing potential threats and errors;

(2) monitor navigation accuracy:        (S) or (U)

(i) demonstrates adequate area knowledge;   PF/PNF

(ii) demonstrates adequate route knowledge;   PF/PNF

(iii) navigates according to flight plan and clearance;   PF

(iv) adjusts flight to weather and traffic conditions;  PF

(v) communicates and coordinates with ATC;   PNF

(vi) observes minimum altitudes;     PF/PNF

(vii) uses all means of automation.     PF

(3) monitor flight progress:         (S) or (U)

(i) selects optimum speed;      PF

(ii) selects optimum cruise flight level;    PF

(iii) monitors and controls fuel status;    PF/PNF

(iv) recognises the need for a possible diversion;   PF/PNF

(v) creates a diversion contingency plan if required.  PF/PNF

(4) perform descent and approach planning:      (S) or (U)

(i) checks weather of destination and alternate airport; PF/PNF

(ii) checks runway in use and approach procedure;  PF/PNF

(iii) sets the FMS accordingly;     PNF

(iv) checks landing weight and landing distance required;  PNF

(v) checks MEA, MGA and MSA;     PF/PNF

(vi) identifies top of descent point.     PF

(5) perform systems operations and procedures:     (S) or (U)

(i) monitors operation of all systems;    PF/PNF

(ii) operates systems as required.     PNF

(6) manage abnormal and emergency situations:      (S) or (U)

(i) identifies the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(ii) interprets the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF

(7) communicate with cabin crew, passengers and company:    (S) or (U)

(i) communicates relevant information with cabin crew; PF

(ii) communicates relevant information with company; PF/PNF

(iii) makes passenger announcements when appropriate. PF

(k) Perform descent

List of competency elements and performance criteria:

(1) Demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including recognising and managing potential threats and errors;

(2) initiate and manage descent:        (S) or (U)

(i) starts descent according to ATC clearance or optimum descent point;                                                                                                                                              PF

(ii) selects optimum speed and descent rate;   PF

(iii) adjusts speed to existing environmental conditions; PF

(iv) recognises the need to adjust the descent path;  PF

(v) adjusts the flight path as required;    PF

(vi) utilises all means of FMS descent information.  PF

(3) monitor and perform en route and descent navigation:    (S) or (U)

(i) complies with arrival clearance and procedures;  PF

(ii) demonstrates terrain awareness;    PF/PNF

(iii) monitors navigation accuracy;     PF/PNF

(iv) adjusts flight to weather and traffic conditions;  PF

(v) communicates and coordinates with ATC;   PNF

(vi) observes minimum altitudes;     PF/PNF

(vii) selects appropriate level or mode of automation;  PF

(viii) complies with altimeter setting procedures.   PF/PNF

(4) re-planning and update of approach briefing:     (S) or (U)

(i) re-checks destination weather and runway in use;  PNF

(ii) briefs or re-briefs about instrument approach and landing as required;                                                                                                                                              PF

(iii) reprograms the FMS as required;    PNF

(iv) re-checks fuel status.      PF/PNF

(5) perform holding:          (S) or (U)

(i) identifies holding requirement;     PF/PNF

(ii) programs FMS for holding pattern;    PNF

(iii) enters and monitors holding pattern;    PF

(iv) assesses fuel requirements and determines max holding time;                                                                                                                                               PF/PNF

(v) reviews the need for a diversion;    PF/PNF

(vi) initiates diversion.       PF

(6) perform systems operations and procedures:     (S) or (U)

(i) monitors operation of all systems;    PF/PNF

(ii) operates systems as required.     PF/PNF

(7) manage abnormal and emergency situations:

(i) identifies the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(ii) interprets the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF

(8) communicate with cabin crew, passengers and company:    (S) or (U)

(i) communicates relevant information with cabin crew; PF

(ii) communicates relevant information with company; PF/PNF

(iii) makes passenger announcements when appropriate; PF

(l) Perform approach

List of competency elements and performance criteria:

(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including recognising and managing potential threats and errors;

(2) perform approach in general:        (S) or (U)

(i) executes approach according to procedures and situation;                                                                                                                                               PF

(ii) selects appropriate level or mode of automation;  PF

(iii) selects optimum approach path;    PF

(iv) operates controls smooth and coordinated;   PF

(v) performs speed reduction and flap extension;  PF/PNF

(vi) performs relevant checklists;     PF/PNF

(vii) initiates final descent;      PF

(viii) achieves stabilised approach criteria;    PF

(ix) ensures adherence to minima;      PF/PNF

(x) initiates go-around if required;     PF

(xi) masters transition to visual segment.    PF

(3) perform precision approach:        (S) or (U)

(i) performs ILS approach;      PF

(ii) performs MLS approach.      PF

(4) perform non-precision approach:       (S) or (U)

(i) performs VOR approach;      PF

(ii) performs NDB approach;      PF

(iii) performs SRE approach;      PF

(iv) performs GNSS approach;     PF

(v) performs ILS loc approach;     PF

(vi) performs ILS back beam approach.    PF

(5) perform approach with visual reference to ground:    (S) or (U)

(i) performs standard visual approach;    PF

(ii) performs circling approach.     PF

(6) monitor the flight progress:        (S) or (U)

(i) insures navigation accuracy;     PF/PNF

(ii) communicates with ATC and crew members;  PNF

(iii) monitors fuel status.      PF/PNF

(7) perform systems operations and procedures:

(i) monitors operation of all systems;    PF

(ii) operates systems as required.     PF

(8) manage abnormal and emergency situations:     (S) or (U)

(i) identifies the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(ii) interprets the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF

(9) perform missed approach and goaround:      (S) or (U)

(i) initiates go-around procedure;     PF

(ii) navigates according to missed approach procedure;  PF

(iii) completes the relevant checklists;     PF/PNF

(iv) initiates approach or diversion after the go-around; PF

(v) communicates with ATC and crew members.  PNF

(10) communicate with cabin crew, passengers and company:    (S) or (U)

(i) communicates relevant information with cabin crew; PF

(ii) communicates relevant information with company; PF/PNF

(iii) makes passenger announcements when appropriate; PF

(iv) initiates go-around procedure.     PF

(m) Perform landing

List of competency elements and performance criteria:

(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including recognising and managing potential threats and errors;

(2) land the aircraft;          (S) or (U)

(i) maintains a stabilised approach path during visual segment;                                                                                                                                                PF

(ii) recognises and acts on changing conditions for windshift or wind shear segment;                                                                                                                                                           PF

(iii) initiates flare;       PF

(iv) controls thrust;       PF

(v) achieves touchdown in touchdown zone on centreline; PF

(vi) lowers nose wheel;      PF

(vii) maintains centreline;      PF

(viii) performs after-touchdown procedures;   PF

(ix) makes use of appropriate braking and reverse thrust; PF

(x) vacates runway with taxi speed.    PF

(3) perform systems operations and procedures:      (S) or (U)

(i) monitors operation of all systems;    PF

(ii) operates systems as required.     PF

(4) manage abnormal and emergency situations:     (S) or (U)

(i) identifies the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(ii) interprets the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF

(n) Perform after landing and post flight operations

List of competency elements and performance criteria:

(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including recognising and managing potential threats and errors;

(2) perform taxiing and parking:        (S) or (U)

(i) receives, checks and adheres to taxi clearance;  PNF

(ii) taxies the aircraft including use of exterior lighting; PF

(iii) controls taxi speed;       PF/PNF

(iv) maintains centreline;      PF

(v) maintains look-out for conflicting traffic and obstacles; PF

(vi) identifies parking position;     PF/PNF

(vii) complies with marshalling or stand guidance;   PF/PNF

(viii) applies parking and engine shut down procedures;  PF

(ix) completes with relevant checklists.    PF/PNF

(3) perform aircraft post-flight operations:      (S) or (U)

(i) communicates to ground personnel and crew;  PF

(ii) completes all required flight documentation;  PF/PNF

(iii) ensures securing of the aircraft;    PF

(iv) conducts the debriefings.      PF

(4) perform systems operations and procedures:     (S) or (U)

(i) monitors operation of all systems;     PF/PNF

(ii) operates systems as required.     PF/PNF

(5) manage abnormal and emergency situations:     (S) or (U)

(i) identifies the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(ii) interprets the abnormal condition;    PF/PNF

(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF

(6) communicate with cabin crew, passengers and company:    (S) or (U)

(i) communicates relevant information with cabin crew; PF

(ii) communicates relevant information with company; PF/PNF

(iii) makes passenger announcements when appropriate. PF

PRINCIPLES OF THREAT AND ERROR MANAGEMENT

(o) One model that explains the principles of threat and error management is the TEM model.

(1) The components of the TEM model:

There are three basic components in the TEM model, from the perspective of flight crews: threats, errors and undesired aircraft states. The model proposes that threats and errors are part of everyday aviation operations that must be managed by flight crews, since both threats and errors carry the potential to generate undesired aircraft states. Flight crews must also manage undesired aircraft states, since they carry the potential for unsafe outcomes. Undesired state management is an essential component of the TEM model, as important as threat and error management. Undesired aircraft state management largely represents the last opportunity to avoid an unsafe outcome and thus maintain safety margins in flight operations.

(2) Threats:

(i) Threats are defined as events or errors that occur beyond the influence of the flight crew, increase operational complexity, and which must be managed to maintain the margins of safety. During typical flight operations, flight crews have to manage various contextual complexities. Such complexities would include, for example, dealing with adverse meteorological conditions, airports surrounded by high mountains, congested airspace, aircraft malfunctions, errors committed by other people outside of the cockpit, such as air traffic controllers, flight attendants or maintenance workers, and so forth. The TEM model considers these complexities as threats because they all have the potential to negatively affect flight operations by reducing margins of safety;

(ii) Some threats can be anticipated, since they are expected or known to the flight crew. For example, flight crews can anticipate the consequences of a thunderstorm by briefing their response in advance, or prepare for a congested airport by making sure they keep a watchful eye on other aircraft as they execute the approach; 

(iii) Some threats can occur unexpectedly, such as an in-flight aircraft malfunction that happens suddenly and without warning. In this case, flight crews must apply skills and knowledge acquired through training and operational experience; 

(iv) Lastly, some threats may not be directly obvious to, or observable by, flight crews immersed in the operational context, and may need to be uncovered by safety analysis. These are considered latent threats. Examples of latent threats include equipment design issues, optical illusions, or shortened turnaround schedules; 

(v) Regardless of whether threats are expected, unexpected, or latent, one measure of the effectiveness of a flight crew’s ability to manage threats is whether threats are detected with the necessary anticipation to enable the flight crew to respond to them through deployment of appropriate countermeasures; 

(vi) Threat management is a building block to error management and undesired aircraft state management. Although the threat-error linkage is not necessarily straightforward, and although it may not be always possible to establish a linear relationship, or one-to-one mapping between threats, errors and undesired states, archival data demonstrates that mismanaged threats are normally linked to flight crew errors, which in turn are often linked to undesired aircraft states. Threat management provides the most proactive option to maintain margins of safety in flight operations, by voiding safety-compromising situations at their roots. As threat managers, flight crews are the last line of defence to keep threats from impacting flight operations; 

(vii) Table 1 presents examples of threats, grouped under two basic categories derived from the TEM Model. Environmental threats occur due to the environment in which flight operations take place. Some environmental threats can be planned for and some will arise spontaneously, but they all have to be managed by flight crews in real time. Organisational threats, on the other hand, can be controlled (for example removed or, at least, minimised) at source by aviation organisations. Organisational threats are usually latent in nature. Flight crews still remain the last line of defence, but there are earlier opportunities for these threats to be mitigated by aviation organisations themselves.

Environmental threats

Organisational threats

(A)  weather: thunderstorms, turbulence, icing, wind shear, cross or tailwind, very low or high temperatures;

(B)  ATC: traffic congestion, ACAS RA/TA, ATC command, ATC error, ATC language difficulty, ATC non-standard phraseology, ATC runway change, ATIS communication or units of measurement (QFE/meters);

(C)  airport: contaminated or short runway; contaminated taxiway, lack of, confusing, faded signage, markings, birds, aids unserviceable, complex surface navigation procedures or airport constructions;

(D)  terrain: high ground, slope, lack of references or ‘black hole’;

(E)  other: similar call-signs.

(A)  operational pressure: delays, late arrivals or equipment changes;

(B)  aircraft: aircraft malfunction, automation event or anomaly, MEL/CDL;

(C)  cabin: flight attendant error, cabin event distraction, interruption, cabin door security;

(D)  maintenance: maintenance event or error;

(E)  ground: ground-handling event, de-icing or ground crew error;

(F)  dispatch: dispatch paperwork event or error;

(G)  documentation: manual error or chart error;

(H)  other: crew scheduling event.

Table 1. Examples of threats (list is not exhaustive)

(3) Errors:

(i) Errors are defined actions or inactions by the flight crew that lead to deviations from organisational or flight crew intentions or expectations. Unmanaged or mismanaged errors frequently lead to undesired aircraft states. Errors in the operational context thus tend to reduce the margins of safety and increase the probability of adverse events; 

(ii) Errors can be spontaneous (for example without direct linkage to specific, obvious threats), linked to threats, or part of an error chain. Examples of errors would include the inability to maintain stabilised approach parameters, executing a wrong automation mode, failing to give a required callout, or misinterpreting an ATC clearance; 

(iii) Regardless of the type of error, an error’s effect on safety depends on whether the flight crew detects and responds to the error before it leads to an undesired aircraft state and to a potential unsafe outcome. This is why one of the objectives of TEM is to understand error management (for example detection and response), rather than to solely focus on error causality (for example causation and commission). From the safety perspective, operational errors that are timely detected and promptly responded to (for example properly managed), errors that do not lead to undesired aircraft states, do not reduce margins of safety in flight operations, and thus become operationally inconsequential. In addition to its safety value, proper error management represents an example of successful human performance, presenting both learning and training value; 

(iv) Capturing how errors are managed is then as important, if not more, as capturing the prevalence of different types of error. It is of interest to capture if and when errors are detected and by whom, the response(s) upon detecting errors, and the outcome of errors. Some errors are quickly detected and resolved, thus becoming operationally inconsequential, while others go undetected or are mismanaged. A mismanaged error is defined as an error that is linked to or induces an additional error or undesired aircraft state;

(v) Table 2 presents examples of errors, grouped under three basic categories derived from the TEM model. In the TEM concept, errors have to be ‘observable’ and therefore, the TEM model uses the ‘primary interaction’ as the point of reference for defining the error categories; 

(vi) The TEM model classifies errors based upon the primary interaction of the pilot or flight crew at the moment the error is committed. Thus, in order to be classified as aircraft handling error, the pilot or flight crew must be interacting with the aircraft (for example through its controls, automation or systems). In order to be classified as procedural error, the pilot or flight crew must be interacting with a procedure (for example checklists; SOPs; etc.). In order to be classified as communication error, the pilot or flight crew must be interacting with people (ATC, ground crew, other crewmembers, etc.); 

(vii) Aircraft handling errors, procedural errors and communication errors may be unintentional or involve intentional non-compliance. Similarly, proficiency considerations (for example skill or knowledge deficiencies, training system deficiencies) may underlie all three categories of error. In order to keep the approach simple and avoid confusion, the TEM model does not consider intentional noncompliance and proficiency as separate categories of error, but rather as sub-sets of the three major categories of error.

Aircraft handling errors

(A)  manual handling, flight controls: vertical, lateral or speed deviations, incorrect flaps or speed brakes, thrust reverser or power settings;

(B)  automation: incorrect altitude, speed, heading, auto throttle settings, incorrect mode executed or incorrect entries;

(C)  systems, radio, instruments: incorrect packs, incorrect anti-icing, incorrect altimeter, incorrect fuel switches settings, incorrect speed bug or incorrect radio frequency dialled;

(D)  ground navigation: attempting to turn down wrong taxiway or runway, taxi too fast, failure to hold short or missed taxiway or runway.

Procedural errors

(A)  SOPs: failure to cross-verify automation inputs;

(B)  checklists: wrong challenge and response; items missed, checklist performed late or at the wrong time;

(C)  callouts: omitted or incorrect callouts;

(D)  briefings: omitted briefings; items missed;

(E)  documentation: wrong weight and balance, fuel information, ATIS, or clearance information recorded, misinterpreted items on paperwork; incorrect logbook entries or incorrect application of MEL procedures.

Communication errors

(A)  crew to external: missed calls, misinterpretations of instructions, incorrect read-back, wrong clearance, taxiway, gate or runway communicated;

(B)  pilot to pilot: within crew miscommunication or mis-interpretation.

Table 2. Examples of errors (list is not exhaustive)

(4) Undesired aircraft states:

(i) Undesired aircraft states are flight crew-induced aircraft position or speed deviations, misapplication of flight controls, or incorrect systems configuration, associated with a reduction in margins of safety. Undesired aircraft states that result from ineffective threat or error management may lead to compromising situations and reduce margins of safety in flight operations. Often considered at the cusp of becoming an incident or accident, undesired aircraft states must be managed by flight crews;

(ii) Examples of undesired aircraft states would include lining up for the incorrect runway during approach to landing, exceeding ATC speed restrictions during an approach, or landing long on a short runway requiring maximum braking. Events such as equipment malfunctions or ATC controller errors can also reduce margins of safety in flight operations, but these would be considered threats; 

(iii) Undesired states can be managed effectively, restoring margins of safety, or flight crew response(s) can induce an additional error, incident, or accident; 

(iv) Table 3 presents examples of undesired aircraft states, grouped under three basic categories derived from the TEM model;

Aircraft handling

(A)  aircraft control (attitude);

(B)  vertical, lateral or speed deviations;

(C) unnecessary weather penetration;

(D) unauthorised airspace penetration;

(E)  operation outside aircraft limitations;

(F) unstable approach;

(G)  continued landing after unstable approach;

(H) long, floated, firm or off-centreline landing.

Ground navigation

(A) proceeding towards wrong taxiway or runway;

(B) Wrong taxiway, ramp, gate or hold spot.

Incorrect aircraft configurations

(A) incorrect systems configuration;

(B) incorrect flight controls configuration;

(C) incorrect automation configuration;

(D) incorrect engine configuration;

(E) incorrect weight and balance configuration.

Table 3. Examples of undesired aircraft states (list is not exhaustive)

(v) An important learning and training point for flight crews is the timely switching from error management to undesired aircraft state management. An example would be as follows: a flight crew selects a wrong approach in the FMC. The flight crew subsequently identifies the error during a cross-check prior to the FAF. However, instead of using a basic mode (for example heading) or manually flying the desired track, both flight crew members become involved in attempting to reprogram the correct approach prior to reaching the FAF. As a result, the aircraft ‘stitches’ through the localiser, descends late, and goes into an unstable approach. This would be an example of the flight crew getting ‘locked in’ to error management, rather than switching to undesired aircraft state management. The use of the TEM model assists in educating flight crews that, when the aircraft is in an undesired state, the basic task of the flight crew is undesired aircraft state management instead of error management. It also illustrates how easy it is to get locked in to the error management phase;

(vi) Also from a learning and training perspective, it is important to establish a clear differentiation between undesired aircraft states and outcomes. Undesired aircraft states are transitional states between a normal operational state (for example a stabilised approach) and an outcome. Outcomes, on the other hand, are end states, most notably, reportable occurrences (for example incidents and accidents). An example would be as follows: a stabilised approach (normal operational state) turns into an unstabilised approach (undesired aircraft state) that results in a runway excursion (outcome);  

(vii) The training and remedial implications of this differentiation are of significance. While at the undesired aircraft state stage, the flight crew has the possibility, through appropriate TEM, of recovering the situation, returning to a normal operational state, thus restoring margins of safety. Once the undesired aircraft state becomes an outcome, recovery of the situation, return to a normal operational state, and restoration of margins of safety is not possible.

(5) Countermeasures:

(i) Flight crews must, as part of the normal discharge of their operational duties, employ countermeasures to keep threats, errors and undesired aircraft states from reducing margins of safety in flight operations. Examples of countermeasures would include checklists, briefings, call-outs and SOPs, as well as personal strategies and tactics. Flight crews dedicate significant amounts of time and energies to the application of countermeasures to ensure margins of safety during flight operations. Empirical observations during training and checking suggest that as much as 70 % of flight crew activities may be countermeasures-related activities.

(ii) All countermeasures are necessarily flight crew actions. However, some countermeasures to threats, errors and undesired aircraft states that flight crews employ build upon ‘hard’ resources provided by the aviation system. These resources are already in place in the system before flight crews report for duty, and are therefore considered as systemic-based countermeasures. The following would be examples of ‘hard’ resources that flight crews employ as systemic-based countermeasures: 

(A) ACAS; 

(B) TAWS; 

(C) SOPs; 

(D) checklists;

(E) briefings;

(F) training;

(G) etc.

(iii) Other countermeasures are more directly related to the human contribution to the safety of flight operations. These are personal strategies and tactics, individual and team countermeasures that typically include canvassed skills, knowledge and attitudes developed by human performance training, most notably, by CRM training. There are basically three categories of individual and team countermeasures: 

(A) planning countermeasures: essential for managing anticipated and unexpected threats;

(B) execution countermeasures: essential for error detection and error response;

(C) review countermeasures: essential for managing the changing conditions of a flight.

(iv) Enhanced TEM is the product of the combined use of systemic based and individual and team countermeasures. Table 4 presents detailed examples of individual and team countermeasures. Further guidance on countermeasures can be found in the sample assessment guides for terminal training objectives (PANS-TRG, Chapter 3, Attachment B) as well as in the ICAO manual, Line Operations Safety Audit (LOSA) (Doc 9803).

Planning countermeasures

SOP briefing

The required briefing was interactive and operationally thorough

(A) Concise, not rushed, and met SOP requirements;

(B) Bottom lines were established

Plans stated

Operational plans and decisions were communicated and acknowledged

Shared understanding about plans: ‘Everybody on the same page’

Workload assignment

Roles and responsibilities were defined for normal and non-normal situations

Workload assignments were communicated and acknowledged

Contingency management

Crew members developed effective strategies to manage threats to safety 

(A) Threats and their consequences were anticipated;

(B) Used all available resources to manage threats

Execution countermeasures

Monitor and cross-check

Crew members actively monitored and cross-checked systems and other crew members

Aircraft position, settings, and crew actions were verified

Workload management

Operational tasks were prioritised and properly managed to handle primary flight duties

(A) Avoided task fixation;

(B) Did not allow work overload

Automation management

Automation was properly managed to balance situational and workload requirements

(A) Automation setup was briefed to other members

(B) Effective recovery techniques from automation anomalies

Review countermeasures

Evaluation and modification of plans

Existing plans were reviewed and modified when necessary

Crew decisions and actions were openly analysed to make sure the existing plan was the best plan

Inquiry

Crew members asked questions to investigate and/or clarify current plans of action

Crew members not afraid to express a lack of knowledge: ‘Nothing taken for granted’ attitude

Assertiveness

Crew members stated critical information or solutions with appropriate persistence

Crew members spoke up without hesitation

Table 4. Examples of individual and team countermeasures

GM1 FCL.015(a) Application and issue, revalidation and renewal of licences, ratings and certificates

ED Decision 2018/011/R

The required level of competency of a student pilot is assessed by observing the following:

(a)  application of knowledge;

(b)  application of regulations and procedures;

(c)  communication;

(d)  aeroplane flight path management – automation;

(e)  aeroplane flight path management – manual control;

(f)  leadership and teamwork;

(g)  problem-solving and decision-making;

(h)  situational awareness (SA) and information management; and

(i)  workload management.

The competencies referred to in points (b) and (e) are particularly relevant during the training. This means that the focus is on observing the student pilot performing take-offs and landings in accordance with the standard operating procedures (SOPs) and recommended techniques of the original equipment manufacturer (OEM).

The competency elements and sub-elements stipulated in GM1 to Appendix 5 for take-off and landing provide additional guidance for instructors and student pilots.

Consistency and repeatability of all the competencies above is achieved if the student pilot is able to perform at least three successive take-offs and landings demonstrating the required observable behaviours.

The take-off and landing training in an aeroplane should include at least one go-around. Due consideration should be given to environmental conditions when evaluating competency.

A. IR(A) — Modular flying training course

GENERAL

1. The aim of the IR(A) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate aeroplanes under IFR and in IMC. The course consists of two modules, which may be taken separately or combined:

(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module

This comprises 10 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 5 hours can be instrument ground time in a BITD, FNPT I or II, or an FFS. Upon completion of the Basic Instrument Flight Module, the candidate shall be issued a Course Completion Certificate.

(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module

This comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(A), 40 hours single-engine or 45 hours multi-engine instrument time under instruction, and the theoretical knowledge course for the IR(A).

2. Applicants for a modular IR(A) course shall be the holder of a PPL(A) or a CPL(A). Applicants for the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, who do not hold a CPL(A), shall be a holder of a BIR or of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module.

The ATO shall ensure that the applicant for a multi-engine IR(A) course who has not held a multi‑engine aeroplane class or type rating has received the multi-engine training specified in Subpart H prior to commencing the flight training for the IR(A) course.

3. An applicant wishing to undertake the Procedural Instrument Flight Module of a modular IR(A) course shall be required to complete all the instructional stages in one continuous approved course of training. Prior to commencing the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, the ATO shall ensure the competence of the applicant in basic instrument flying skills. Refresher training shall be given as required.

4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The Procedural Instrument Flight Module and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in theoretical examinations.

5. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;

(b) instrument flight instruction.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. An approved modular IR(A) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction.

FLYING TRAINING

7. A single-engine IR(A) course shall comprise at least 50 hours instrument time under instruction of which up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 35 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 10 hours of FNPT II or an FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.

8. A multi-engine IR(A) course shall comprise at least 55 hours instrument time under instruction, of which up to 25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 40 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 10 hours of FNPT II or an FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I. The remaining instrument flight instruction shall include at least 15 hours in multi-engine aeroplanes.

9. The holder of a single-engine IR(A) who also holds a multi-engine class or type rating wishing to obtain a multi-engine IR(A) for the first time shall complete a course at an ATO comprising at least 5 hours instruction in instrument flying in multi-engine aeroplanes, of which 3 hours may be in an FFS or FNPT II.

10.1 Holders of a CPL(A), of a BIR, or of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours in regard of the total amount of training required in paragraphs 7 or 8 above.

10.2 The holder of an IR(H) may have the total amount of training required in paragraphs 7 or 8 above reduced to 10 hours.

10.3 The total instrument flight instruction in aeroplane shall comply with paragraph 7 or 8, as appropriate.

11. The flying exercises up to the IR(A) skill test shall comprise:

(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module: Procedure and manoeuvre for basic instrument flight covering at least:

basic instrument flight without external visual cues:

             horizontal flight,

             climbing,

             descent,

             turns in level flight, climbing, descent;

instrument pattern;

steep turn;

radio navigation;

recovery from unusual attitudes;

limited panel;

recognition and recovery from incipient and full stalls;

(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module:

(i) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(ii) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

             transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,

             standard instrument departures and arrivals,

             en-route IFR procedures,

             holding procedures,

             instrument approaches to specified minima,

             missed approach procedures,

             landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(iii) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(iv) if required, operation of a multi-engine aeroplane in the above exercises, including operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine shutdown and restart (the latter exercise to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or FNPT II).

GENERAL

1. The aim of the competency-based modular flying training course is to train PPL or CPL holders for the instrument rating, taking into account prior instrument flight instruction and experience. It is designed to provide the level of proficiency needed to operate aeroplanes under IFR and in IMC. The course shall be taken within an ATO or consist of a combination of instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR and flight instruction within an ATO.

2. An applicant for such a competency-based modular IR(A) shall be the holder of a PPL(A) or CPL(A).

3. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The instrument flight instruction and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass of the theoretical knowledge examinations.

4. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR(A) knowledge level;

(b) instrument flight instruction.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

5. An approved competency-based modular IR(A) course shall comprise at least 80 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction. The theoretical knowledge course may contain computer-based training and e- learning elements. A minimum amount of classroom teaching as required by ORA.ATO.305 has to be provided.

FLYING TRAINING

6. The method of attaining an IR(A) following this modular course is competency-based. However, the minimum requirements below shall be completed by the applicant. Additional training may be required to reach required competencies.

(a) A single-engine competency-based modular IR(A) course shall include at least 40 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 10 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 25 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.

(i) When the applicant has:

(A) completed instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR; or

(B) prior experience of instrument flight time as PIC on aeroplanes, under a rating providing the privileges to fly under IFR and in IMC,

these hours may be credited towards the 40 hours above up to maximum of 30 hours,

(ii) When the applicant has prior instrument flight time under instruction other than specified in point (a)(i), these hours may be credited towards the required 40 hours up to a maximum of 15 hours.

(iii) In any case, the flying training shall include at least 10 hours of instrument flight time under instruction in an aeroplane at an ATO.

(iv) The total amount of dual instrument instruction shall not be less than 25 hours.

(b) A multi-engine competency-based modular IR(A) course shall include at least 45 hours instrument time under instruction, of which up to 10 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 30 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.

(i) When the applicant has:

(A) completed instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR; or

(B) prior experience of instrument flight time as PIC on aeroplanes, under a rating giving the privileges to fly under IFR and in IMC

these hours may be credited towards the 45 hours above up to a maximum of 35 hours.

(ii) When the applicant has prior instrument flight time under instruction other than specified in point (b)(i), these hours may be credited towards the required 45 hours up to a maximum of 15 hours.

(iii) In any case, the flying training shall include at least 10 hours of instrument flight time under instruction in a multi-engine aeroplane at an ATO.

(iv) The total amount of dual instrument instruction shall not be less than 25 hours, of which at least 15 hours shall be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane.

(c) To determine the amount of hours credited and to establish the training needs, the applicant shall complete a pre-entry assessment at an ATO.

(d) The completion of the instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or FI(A) in accordance with point (a)(i) or (b)(i) shall be documented in a specific training record and signed by the instructor.

7. The flight instruction for the competency-based modular IR(A) shall comprise:

(a) procedures and manoeuvres for basic instrument flight covering at least:

(i) basic instrument flight without external visual cues;

(ii) horizontal flight;

(iii) climbing;

(iv) descent;

(v) turns in level flight, climbing and descent;

(vi) instrument pattern;

(vii) steep turn;

(viii) radio navigation;

(ix) recovery from unusual attitudes;

(x) limited panel; and

(xi) recognition and recovery from incipient and full stall;

(b) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services documents for the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(c) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal, and emergency conditions covering at least:

(i) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;

(ii) standard instrument departures and arrivals;

(iii) en route IFR procedures;

(iv) holding procedures;

(v) instrument approaches to specified minima;

(vi) missed approach procedures; and

(vii) landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(d) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(e) if required, operation of a multi-engine aeroplane in the above exercises, including:

(i) operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative;

(ii) engine shutdown and restart (to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or FNPT II).

8. Applicants for the competency-based modular IR(A) holding a Part-FCL PPL or CPL and a valid IR(A) issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country may be credited in full towards the training course mentioned in paragraph 4. In order to be issued the IR(A), the applicant shall:

(a) successfully complete the skill test for the IR(A) in accordance with Appendix 7;

(b) demonstrate to the examiner during the skill test that he/she has acquired an adequate level of theoretical knowledge of air law, meteorology and flight planning and performance (IR); and

(c) have a minimum experience of at least 50 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC on aeroplanes.

9. Applicants for the competency-based modular IR(A) who hold a BIR in accordance with point FCL.835 and who have received at least 10 hours of instrument flight time under instruction at an ATO may be credited towards the training course referred to in paragraph 4, provided that all competency-based instrument rating topics have been included in that BIR training, and assessed by the ATO that provides the competency-based modular flying training course.

10. Applicants for the competency-based modular IR(A) who hold a BIR and have experience of at least 50 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC on aeroplanes, shall:

(a) at an ATO:

(i) be assessed as having an acceptable standard of competency-based instrument rating theoretical knowledge;

(ii) receive appropriate flight training to extend IFR privileges in accordance with FCL.605.IR(a);

(b) after completion of (a);

(i) successfully complete the skill test for the IR(A) in accordance with Appendix 7;

(ii) demonstrate orally to the examiner during the skill test that they have acquired an adequate level of theoretical knowledge of air law, meteorology, and flight planning and performance.

PRE-ENTRY ASSESSMENT

11. The content and duration of the pre-entry assessment shall be determined by the ATO based on the prior instrument experience of the applicant.

MULTI-ENGINE

12. The holder of a single-engine IR(A) who also holds a multi-engine class or type rating wishing to obtain a multi-engine IR(A) for the first time shall complete a course at an ATO comprising at least 5 hours instrument time under instruction in multi-engine aeroplanes, of which 3 hours may be in an FFS or FNPT II and shall pass a skill test.

B. IR(H) — Modular flying training course

1. The aim of the IR(H) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate helicopters under IFR and in IMC.

2. An applicant for a modular IR(H) course shall be the holder of a PPL(H), or a CPL(H) or an ATPL(H). Prior to commencing the aircraft instruction phase of the IR(H) course, the applicant shall be the holder of the helicopter type rating used for the IR(H) skill test, or have completed approved type rating training on that type. The applicant shall hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC if the skill test is to be conducted in Multi- Pilot conditions.

3. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular IR(H) course shall be required to complete all the instructional stages in one continuous approved course of training.

4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The flight instruction and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical examinations.

5. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;

(b) instrument flight instruction.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. An approved modular IR(H) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of instruction.

FLYING TRAINING

7. An IR(H) course shall comprise at least 55 hours instrument time under instruction, of which:

(a) up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I (H) or (A). These 20 hours instruction time in FNPT I (H) or (A) may be substituted by 20 hours instruction time for IR(H) in an aeroplane, approved for this course; or

(b) up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time in a helicopter FTD 2/3, FNPT II/III or FFS.

The instrument flight instruction shall include at least 10 hours in an IFR-certificated helicopter.

8.1 Holders of an ATPL(H) shall have the theoretical knowledge instruction hours reduced by 50 hours.

8.2 The holder of an IR(A) may have the amount of training required reduced to 10 hours.

8.3. The holder of a PPL(H) with a helicopter night rating or a CPL(H) may have the total amount of instrument time under instruction required reduced by 5 hours.

9. The flying exercises up to the IR(H) skill test shall comprise:

(a) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(b) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

             transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,

             standard instrument departures and arrivals,

             en-route IFR procedures,

             holding procedures,

             instrument approaches to specified minima,

             missed approach procedures,

             landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(c) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(d) if required, operation of a multi-engine helicopter in the above exercises, including operation of the helicopter solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine shutdown and restart (the latter exercise to be carried out in an FFS or FNPT II or FTD 2/3).

C. IR(As) — Modular flying training course

GENERAL

1. The aim of the IR(As) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate airships under IFR and in IMC. The course consists of two modules, which may be taken separately or combined:

(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module

This comprises 10 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 5 hours can be instrument ground time in a BITD, FNPT I or II, or an FFS. Upon completion of the Basic Instrument Flight Module, the candidate shall be issued a Course Completion Certificate.

(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module

This comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(As), 25 hours instrument time under instruction, and the theoretical knowledge course for the IR(As).

2. An applicant for a modular IR(As) course shall be the holder of a PPL(As) including the privileges to fly at night or a CPL(As). An applicant for the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, who does not hold a CPL(As), shall be holder of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module.

3. An applicant wishing to undertake the Procedural Instrument Flight Module of a modular IR(As) course shall be required to complete all the instructional stages in one continuous approved course of training. Prior to commencing the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, the ATO shall ensure the competence of the applicant in basic instrument flying skills. Refresher training shall be given as required.

4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The Procedural Instrument Flight Module and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in theoretical examinations.

5. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;

(b) instrument flight instruction.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. An approved modular IR(As) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction.

FLYING TRAINING

7. An IR(As) course shall comprise at least 35 hours instrument time under instruction of which up to 15 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 20 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.

8. The holder of a CPL(As) or of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module may have the total amount of training required in paragraph 7 reduced by 10 hours. The total instrument flight instruction in airship shall comply with paragraph 7.

9. If the applicant is the holder of an IR in another category of aircraft the total amount of flight instruction required may be reduced to 10 hours on airships.

10. The flying exercises up to the IR(As) skill test shall comprise:

(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module:

Procedure and manoeuvre for basic instrument flight covering at least:

basic instrument flight without external visual cues:

             horizontal flight,

             climbing,

             descent,

             turns in level flight, climbing, descent;

instrument pattern;

radionavigation;

recovery from unusual attitudes;

limited panel;

(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module:

(i) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(ii) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least:

             transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,

             standard instrument departures and arrivals,

             en-route IFR procedures,

             holding procedures,

             instrument approaches to specified minima,

             missed approach procedures,

             landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(iii) inflight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(iv) operation of airship in the above exercises, including operation of the airship solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine shut-down and restart (the latter exercise to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or FNPT II).

ALL MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSES FOR THE IR, EXCEPT COMPETENCYBASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE 

(a) The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO conducting theoretical knowledge instruction only, in which case the head of training (HT) of that organisation should supervise that part of the course.

(b) The 150 hours of instruction, which include the application of threat and error management (TEM), may include in suitable proportions:

(1) classroom work;

(2) lessons;

(3) tutorials;

(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests; and

(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

Approved distance-learning (correspondence) courses may also be offered as part of the course. The minimum amount of classroom instruction, as required by ORA.ATO.305, may include all of the above except item (b)(9).

SECTION A IR(A) - MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE

Basic Instrument Flight Module Training Course

(a) This 10 hours module is focused on the basics of flying by sole reference to instruments, including limited panel and unusual attitude recovery.

(b) All exercises may be performed in an FNPT I or II or an FFS, for a maximum of 5 hours. If instrument flight training is in VMC, a suitable means of simulating IMC for the student should be used.

(c) A BITD may be used for the exercises 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 8. 

(d) The use of the BITD is subject to the following:

(1) the training should be complemented by exercises on an aeroplane;

(2) the record of the parameters of the flight must be available;

(3) an FI(A) or IRI(A) should conduct the instruction.

EXERCISES

(e) Exercise 1:

(1) basic instrument flying without external visual cues; 0:30 hours

(2) horizontal flight; power changes for acceleration or deceleration;

(3) maintaining straight and level flight;

(4) turns in level flight with 15 ° and 25 ° bank, left and right; 

(5) roll-out onto predetermined headings. 

(f) Exercise 2:

(1) repetition of exercise 1;       0:45 hours

(2) additionally climbing, descending, maintaining heading and speed, transition to horizontal flight;

(3) climbing and descending turns. 

(g) Exercise 3:

Instrument pattern:         0:45 hours

(1) start exercise, decelerate to approach speed, flaps into approach configuration; 

(2) initiate standard turn (left or right);

(3) roll out on opposite heading, maintain new heading for 1 minute

(4) standard turn, gear down, descend 500 ft/min;

(5) roll out on initial heading, maintain descent (500 ft/min) and new heading for 1 minute;

(6) transition to horizontal flight, 1000 ft below initial flight level;

(7) initiate go-around; 

(8) climb at best rate of climb speed.

(h) Exercise 4:

Repetition of exercise 1 and        0:45 hours

steep turns with 45° bank;

recovery from unusual attitudes.

(i) Exercise 5: 

Repetition of exercise 4.       0:45 hours 

(j) Exercise 6:

(1) radio navigation using VOR, NDB    0:45 hours

or, if available, VDF;

(2) interception of predetermined QDM, QDR. 

(k) Exercise 7: 

Repetition of exercise 1 and        0:45hours

recovery from unusual attitudes.

(l) Exercise 8:

(1) Repetition of exercise 1;    0:45 hours

(2) turns, level change and recovery from unusual attitudes with simulated failure of the artificial horizon or directional gyro.

(m) Exercise 9:

Recognition of, and recovery from,     0:45 hours   

incipient and full stalls.

(n) Exercise 10: Repetition of exercises 6, 8   3:30 hours   and 9.

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION OF BASIC INSTRUMENT FLIGHT MODULE

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION OF BASIC INSTRUMENT FLIGHT MODULE

Pilot’s last name(s):

 

 

First name(s):

 

Type of licence:

 

Number:

State:

Flight training hours performed on SE aeroplane:

 

OR

Flight training hours performed on ME aeroplane:

 

Flight training hours performed in an FSTD (maximum 5 hours):

 

 

 

Signature of applicant:

 

 

The satisfactory completion of basic instrument flight module according to requirements is certified below:

TRAINING

Basic instrument flight module training received during period:

from:

 

to:

at:

ATO

Location and date:

Signature of head of training:

 

Type and number of licence and state of issue:

 

Name(s) in capital letters of authorised instructor:

 

SECTION Aa IR(A) – COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE 

(a) THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION

(1) The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO conducting theoretical knowledge instruction only, in which case the HT of that ATO should supervise that part of the course. 

(2) The hours required for the theoretical knowledge instruction for the IR following the competency-based training route should be divided between the subjects and include the application of threat and error management (TEM) as based on the ATO’s systems course design and agreed upon between the competent authority and the ATO.

An approved course, which includes the application of threat and error management, may contain in suitable proportions:

(i) classroom work;

(ii) lessons;

(iii) tutorials;

(iv) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

(v) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route planning, communications, presentations and projects;

(vi) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;

(vii) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;

(viii) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

(ix) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(x) progress tests; and

(xi) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

Approved distance-learning (correspondence) courses may also be offered as part of the course. The minimum amount of classroom instruction, as required by ORA.ATO.305, may include all of the above except item (a)(2)(ix).’

(b) THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION 

The applicant for the IR following the competency-based training route should pass an examination to demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted in the subjects further detailed in FCL.615(b). The number of questions per subject, the distribution of questions and the time allocated to each subject is detailed in AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b).

SECTION Aa IR(A) – COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE FLYING TRAINING

(a) The instrument flight instruction outside an ATO provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR in accordance with Appendix 6 Section Aa (6)(a)(i)(A) may consist of instrument flight time under instruction or instrument ground time or a combination thereof.

TRAINING AIRCRAFT

(b) The aeroplane used for the instrument flight training provided outside an ATO by an IRI(A) or FI(A) should be: 

(1) fitted with primary flight controls that are instantly accessible by both the student and the instructor (for example dual flight controls or a centre control stick). Swing-over flight controls should not be used; and 

(2) suitably equipped to simulate instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) and for the instrument flight training required. 

(c) The FSTD used for the instrument flight instruction provided outside an ATO by an IRI(A) or FI(A) should be suitably equipped to simulate instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) and for the instrument flight training required

AMC5 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR

ED Decision 2014/022/R

SECTION Aa IR(A) – COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE

(6)(a)(i)(B); (6)(b)(i)(B)

PRIOR EXPERIENCE OF FLIGHT TIME UNDER IFR AS PIC

A rating giving privileges to fly under IFR and in IMC referred to in (6)(a)(i)(B) and (6)(b)(i)(B) may be any of the following:

(a) an EIR rating issued by a competent authority of a Member State; or

(b) a national instrument rating issued by a Member State prior to the application of Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011; or 

(c) an instrument rating issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country; or 

(d) an authorisation issued by a Member State under Article 4(8) of Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011.

The amount of credit given should not exceed the amount of hours completed as instrument flight time.

AMC6 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR

ED Decision 2014/022/R

SECTION Aa IR(A) – COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE

(6)(a)(ii); (6)(b)(ii)

PRIOR INSTRUMENT FLIGHT TIME UNDER INSTRUCTION 

Prior instrument flight time under instruction on aeroplanes, as referred in (6)(a)(ii) and (6)(b)(ii), may be instrument flight time completed for the issue of:

(a) an EIR rating issued by a competent authority of a Member State; or 

(b) a national instrument rating prior to the application of Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011; or 

(c) an instrument rating in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country; or 

(d) an authorisation issued by a Member State under Article 4(8) of Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011.

AMC7 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR

ED Decision 2014/022/R

SECTION Aa IR(A) – COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE

(6)(c); (6)(d)

PRE-ENTRY ASSESSMENT AND TRAINING RECORD

(a) PRE-ENTRY ASSESSMENT

The assessment to establish the amount of training to be credited and to identify the training needs should be based on the training syllabus established in Appendix 6 Aa. 

(b) TRAINING RECORD

(1) Before initiating the assessment the applicant should provide to an ATO a training record containing the details of the previous flight instruction provided by the IRI(A) or the FI(A). This training record should at least specify the aircraft type and registration used for the training, the number of flights and the total amount of instrument time under instruction. It should also specify all the exercises completed during the training by using the syllabus contained in Appendix 6 Aa. 

(2) The instructor having provided the training should keep the training records containing all the details of the flight training given for a period of at least 5 years after the completion of the training.

AMC8 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR

ED Decision 2014/022/R

SECTION Aa IR(A) – COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE

(8)

In order to be credited in full towards the multi-engine IR(A) training course requirements, the applicant should

(a) hold a multi-engine IR(A), issued in accordance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country; 

(b) have the minimum experience required in Appendix 6 Aa paragraph 8(c), of which at least 15 hours should be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane.

AIRSHIPS

Basic Instrument Flight Module Training Course

(a) This 10 hours module is focused on the basics of flying by sole reference to instruments, including limited panel and unusual attitude recovery.

(b) All exercises may be performed in an FNPT I or II or an FFS, for a maximum of 5 hours. If instrument flight training is in VMC, a suitable means of simulating IMC for the student should be used.

(c) A BITD may be used for the exercises 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8.

(d) The use of the BITD is subject to the following:

(1) the training should be complemented by exercises on an airship;

(2) the record of the parameters of the flight must be available;

(3) an FI(As) or IRI(As) should conduct the instruction.

EXERCISES

(e) Exercise 1:

(1) basic instrument flying without      0:30 hours

external visual cues; 

(2) horizontal flight;

(3) maintaining straight and level flight;

(4) turns in level flight, left and right; 

(5) rollout onto predetermined headings.

(f) Exercise 2:

(1) Repetition of exercise 1;      0:45 hours

additionally climbing and descending

(2) maintaining heading and speed;

(3) transition to horizontal flight; 

(4) climbing and descending turns. 

(g) Exercise 3:

Instrument pattern:       0:45 hours

(1) start exercise, decelerate to approach speed, approach configuration;

(2) initiate standard turn (left or right);

(3) rollout on opposite heading, maintain new heading for 1 minute;

(4) standard turn, descend with given rate (for example 500 ft/min);

(5) rollout on initial heading, maintain descent (for example 500 ft/min) and new heading for 1 minute;

(6) transition to horizontal flight (for example 1 000 ft below initial level);

(7) initiate go-around;

(8) climb at best rate of climb speed.

(h) Exercise 4:

(1) repetition of exercise 1;      0:45 hours

(2) recovery from unusual attitudes. 

(i) Exercise 5