Easy Access Rules for Continuing Airworthiness (Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014)

Regulation (EU) 2023/989

(a)The standardisation basis for examinations related to the Appendix VII basic knowledge requirements shall be as follows:

(i)all examinations must be carried out using the multiple-choice question format as specified in point (ii). The incorrect alternatives must seem equally plausible to anyone ignorant of the subject. All of the alternatives should be clearly related to the question and of similar vocabulary, grammatical construction and length. In numerical questions, the incorrect answers should correspond to procedural errors such as corrections applied in the wrong sense or incorrect unit conversions: they must not be mere random numbers;

(ii)each multiple-choice question must have three alternative answers of which only one must be the correct answer and the candidate must be allowed a time per module which is based upon a nominal average of 75 seconds per question;

(iii)the pass mark for each module is 75 %;

(iv)penalty marking (negative points for failed questions) is not to be used;

(v)the level of knowledge required in the questions must be proportionate to the level of technology of the aircraft category.

(vi)a failed module may not be retaken for at least 90 days from the date of the failed module examination;

(vii)the maximum number of attempts for each examination is three in a 12-month period.

(b)The number of questions per module shall be as follows:

(i)module 1L ‘BASIC KNOWLEDGE’: 20 questions.

Time allowed: 25 minutes;

(ii)module 2L ‘HUMAN FACTORS’: 20 questions.

Time allowed: 25 minutes;

(iii)module 3L ‘AVIATION LEGISLATION’: 28 questions.

Time allowed: 35 minutes;

(iv)module 4L ‘WOODEN AND/OR METAL-TUBE STRUCTURE COVERED WITH FABRIC’: 40 questions.

Time allowed: 50 minutes;

(v)module 5L ‘COMPOSITE STRUCTURE’: 32 questions.

Time allowed: 40 minutes;

(vi)module 6L ‘METALLIC STRUCTURE’: 32 questions.

Time allowed: 40 minutes;

(vii)module 7L ‘AIRFRAME – GENERAL, MECHANICAL AND ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS’: 60 questions.

Time allowed: 75 minutes;

(viii)module 8L ‘POWER PLANT’: 64 questions.

Time allowed: 80 minutes;

(ix)module 9L ‘BALLOONS – HOT-AIR BALLOONS’: 36 questions.

Time allowed: 45 minutes;

(x)module 10L ‘BALLOONS – GAS (FREE/TETHERED) BALLOONS’: 44 questions.

Time allowed: 55 minutes;

(xi)module 11L ‘AIRSHIPS – HOT-AIR/GAS AIRSHIPS’: 40 questions.

Time allowed: 50 minutes;

(xii)Module 12L ‘RADIO COM/ELT/TRANSPONDER/INSTRUMENTS’: 20 questions.

Time allowed: 25 minutes.

ED Decision 2023/019/R

NUMBER OF QUESTIONS PER SUBMODULE

The tables below show the number of questions recommended for each submodule. Justified deviations from these values are also acceptable, provided that the sum of the questions for the submodules equals the total number for a given module.

MODULE 1L — BASIC KNOWLEDGE

MODULE 2L — HUMAN FACTORS

MODULE 3L — AVIATION LEGISLATION

MODULE 4L — WOODEN AND/OR METAL-TUBE STRUCTURE COVERED WITH FABRIC

MODULE 5L — COMPOSITE STRUCTURE

MODULE 6L — METALLIC STRUCTURE

MODULE 7L — AIRFRAME: GENERAL, MECHANICAL AND ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS

MODULE 8L — POWER PLANT

Note: In accordance with Appendix VII ‘1. Modularisation’ to Annex III, Module 8L training subjects for L5 category AML and, therefore, the number of questions, should be limited to the relevant propulsion system. As such, in the above table, certain submodules may not be applicable and should not be taken into account, and the total number of questions should also be adapted accordingly.

MODULE 9L — BALLOONS: HOT-AIR BALLOONS

MODULE 10L — BALLOONS: GAS (FREE/TETHERED) BALLOONS

MODULE 11L — AIRSHIPS: HOT-AIR/GAS AIRSHIPS

MODULE 12L — RADIO COM / ELTs / TRANSPONDERS / INSTRUMENTS

Regulation (EU) 2023/989

1.The purpose of this Appendix is to establish the requirements for the assessment and approval by a competent authority of any course that includes MBT in accordance with point 66.B.135.

This Appendix may be used for the assessment of other training courses if the competent authority decides that the assessment method laid down in this Appendix are appropriate for such other courses.

The assessment shall be conducted by the competent authority against all the criteria laid down in Table (A), grouped in four categories from (a) to (d). The competent authority shall clearly identify in the table the MBT product being assessed and its production and update versions.

2.The competent authority carrying out the assessment shall put itself in the position of the student or the end user and shall rate each criterion listed in Table (A) individually on a rating scale from 1 to 5, as follows:

1:Not acceptable. Does not meet the required criteria.

2:Partially acceptable, but improvement is needed to meet the required criteria.

3:Acceptable. Meets the required criteria.

4:Good. Meets the required criteria with enhancements made.

5:Excellent. Exceeds the required criteria.

3.If one or more of the criteria is rated below 3, an alternative learning process shall be requested by the competent authority in order to enhance the suitability of the product to an acceptable level.

4.Once the competent authority has rated each of the individual criteria listed in Table (A), the following combined rating scale shall be used by the competent authority to determine the overall suitability level for each MBT learning resource:

—100–80: Excellent learning resource. It offers different functionalities and meets the required suitability criteria.

—79–60: The learning resource meets the required suitability criteria.

—59–40: The learning resource does not allow for a sufficiently worthy educational use. It can be used for ‘informal’ training only.

—39–20: The learning resource is below the average. It does not meet several required suitability criteria.

Before approving the product, the competent authority shall check that the final score of the MBT is equal to or above 60, and that there is no single criterion that is rated below 3.

Table (A): Assessment for the multimedia-based training (MBT)

Notes:

The following shall be taken into account by the competent authority when assessing the MBT against the individual criteria listed in Table (A):

Categories:

(a)Academic quality

The information presented in the multimedia resource shall have two characteristics:

i.Reliability: the information is reliable, current, and relatively free of errors. The information complies with the current regulatory requirements.

ii.Relevance: the information is relevant to the learning objectives defined for the course. It supports the student in achieving the learning objectives.

(b)Pedagogical quality

The MBT emphasises the activities which promote the development of the required knowledge and skills.

The main criteria for each product are related to three aspects:

i.Pedagogical formulation/construction: it is characterised by the quality of simplification, the presence of summaries as well as the use of diagrams, figures, animations, and illustrations. It evaluates whether the structure of the learning resource promotes its use in a pedagogical context. This refers to the ease of orientation (summary, lesson plan), presence of appropriate interactions, usability (back, forward, scroll boxes, etc.), and communication resources (questions and answers, FAQs, forum, etc.)

ii.Pedagogical strategies: teaching and learning styles should be based on active teaching approaches to build meaningful situations related to learning objectives and to learner motivation.

iii.Student assessment methods: methods are implemented to measure the achievement of learning objectives.

(c)Didactic quality

i.Learning activities: the content refers to real-life situations the student could possibly face in an actual maintenance environment.

ii.Learning content: the content is adequate to meet the learning objectives.

(d)Technical quality

This section assesses the design, browsing and technological aspects of the learning resources:

i.Design: the content and organisation of the learning resource shall promote the appropriate use of colours, interactivity, graphic quality for selected images, animations, and illustrations.

ii.Browsing: while navigating, the student should be able to find a plan, an index, or a detailed table of contents. The suggested choices or guidelines shall be clear and the groupings within the menus shall be consistent.

iii.Technological aspects: multimedia techniques aim to combine and exploit the capacities of any new technology in education to enhance the transfer of knowledge. Therefore, the system shall favour the use of animations, simulations, or any other interactive elements.

APPENDICES TO AMC TO ANNEX III (Part-66)

ED Decision 2023/019/R

The following aircraft type ratings should be used to ensure a common standard throughout the Member States.

In order to keep this list up-to-date, if a Member State needs to issue a type rating that is not included in this list, the information should be passed on to EASA using the EASA ‘Contact us’ webpage (https://www.easa.europa.eu/contact-us).

The tables may erroneously contain aircraft models that fall within the definition of Annex I aircraft of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139. The requirements of Part-66 do not apply to these aircraft.

Notes on type rating (TR) endorsement covering several models/variants:

The endorsement of a type rating (TR) on the aircraft maintenance licence (AML), covering several models/variants, does not automatically imply that the AML holder has acquired the appropriate knowledge on each model/variant. In fact, the AML holder may only have received TR training and/or gained experience that was limited to one or several models or variants.

To demonstrate adequate competence on the relevant model(s)/variant(s), the AML holder and/or the maintenance organisation where the AML holder is contracted/employed is (are) responsible to verify that the model/variant has been adequately covered by the TR course or gained experience and is up to date.

Further explanation can be found in AMC 66.A.20(b)3 and AMC 145.A.35(a).

Notes on when and how the licences should be modified:

The licensing authorities should implement the new type rating list within 6 months after publication of this Decision. During this implementation period, the old type ratings may still be endorsed. New applications for type ratings that are no longer certified by EASA should not be accepted. Licences with the old type ratings shall be endorsed with the amended type ratings, whenever the licensing authority deems necessary or the holder requests it; however, no later than the next renewal of the licence.

The instructions on how to endorse a modified type rating (for example, in the case of combined or split TRs) are included in the chapter ‘Details of the changes’ of explanatory note of the decision.

Notes on aircraft modified by a Supplemental Type Certificate (STC):

•This Appendix intends to include the type ratings of aircraft resulting from STCs for installation of a different engine. These STCs are those approved by EASA and those approved by the Member States before 2003 and grandfathered by EASA. STCs other than those for engines are not considered.

Example: The STC from JET AVIATION AG, approved by the LBA for replacement of GE CF 700 by Honeywell TFE731 on Fan Jet Falcon Series E, results in a new rating called ‘Falcon 20E (Honeywell TFE731)’.

•However, the ratings from STCs for installation of an engine:

on part of the original airframe models, or

from the same manufacturer, but of a type very similar to the original one, have not been added because they would have resulted in an already existing rating.

Examples:

The STC from SILVERHAWK CONVERSIONS approved by EASA for installation of PT6A-135A on Beech C90, C90A and E90 would result in the Beech C90/C90A/E90 (PWC PT6) rating, but this is not listed because it is already included in the original Beech 90 Series (PWC PT6) rating.

The STC from Air-Service Wildgruber GmbH approved by LBA for replacement of PWC PT6A-20 by PWC PT6A-27 would result in the De Havilland DHC-6-100 (PWC PT6) rating, but this is not listed because it is already included in the De Havilland DHC-6 (PWC PT6) rating in the table.

•EASA has not received all the information concerning STCs that have been previously approved by the Member States. As a result, not all STCs are considered by this publication.

•When the STC concerns the installation of an engine that falls under a different subcategory, e.g. replacement of a piston engine by a turboprop (a turbine engine), then the new type rating endoresment requires compliance with all the relevant criteria for basic knowledge, experience, type training, and on-the-job training (OJT).

•In case a type rating resulting from an STC has not been yet defined by EASA, the latter shall be contacted by the competent authority to agree on a new type rating to be used.

In the following tables:

•The table is alphabetically sorted first by TC/STC Holder, then by TR endorsement, and finally by Model.

•The column ‘TC Holder’ includes the TC holder as defined in the type certificate data sheets (TCDS) (EASA, FAA or other) or the specific airworthiness specifications (SAS).

•The column ‘STC Holder’ includes the STC holder as defined in the supplemental type certificate data sheets (STCDS) (EASA, FAA or other).

•Some TC holders’ designations have been corrected to add the information: ‘Aircraft with an SAS’, this means that the aircraft listed under this TC holder designation is considered to be an ‘orphan aircraft’or General Aviation aircraft form CIS (former Sovjet Union) countries.

•In Group 3, the column ‘Type of structure’ intends to assist the competent authorities in identifying the experience required for this type with a view to removing existing limitations on the licence.

•In Group 4, the column ‘Type of structure’ intends to assist the competent authorities in identifying the required ‘L’ subcategories.

•Wooden structure covered with fabric is considered to fall under wooden structure. For aeroplanes with a combination of structures, e.g. metal tubing fuselage and wooden wings, both experiences ‘metal tube covered with fabric’ and ‘wooden structure’ are required.

•In Group 3, the column ‘MTOM’ intends to assist the competent authorities in identifying the aeroplane types where the maximum take-off mass (MTOM) is:

above 2t requires a B1.2 and B2 or B2L licence, or

2t and below requires a B1.2 or B3 and B2 or B2L licence.

•The column ‘NOTE’ in every table includes some useful information, when relevant, e.g.:

ELA1 or ELA2 aircraft.

‘OSD Approved’ or ‘Pending OSD Approval’ means that an OSD-MCS (operational suitability data for maintenance certifying staff) exists or is still under the approval process at the date of publication of this ED Decision. OSD data is owned by the TCH (see  TCHs contact list: https://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/operational-suitability-data/osd-contact-list).

Type training courses approved before the approval of the OSD-MCS shall include the OSD elements within 2 years after the OSD-MCS approval.

STC reference number.

‘TC (or STC) not yet released’ means that the type certificate (or STC) has not yet been released by EASA at the date of publication of this ED Decision, but the final model configuration is sufficiently mature that the type rating endorsement can be already defined. In this case, the initial training and licensing may start and be used for approval of type training courses and Part-66 licence endorsement. On the contrary, the associated rating for the maintenance organisation can be granted only after the type certification of the aircraft (or after the approval of the STC).